Deck 2: Section 2: Prenatal Development and the Newborn Period

Question 1

Which concept is consistent with Aristotle's beliefs about prenatal development?

A) The effects of thalidomide on prenatal development vary depending on when during the pregnancy the mother took the drug.
B) Infants born prematurely already have all the correct structures but in miniature.
C) Female eggs contain minuscule preformed human beings.
D) None of these concepts is consistent with Aristotle's beliefs.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Which item would likely be MOST interesting to a scientist interested in embryos?

A) an X-ray of the internal organs of a 2-year-old child
B) the ultrasound images of an unborn fetus at 4 weeks following conception
C) a blood test of a pregnant woman
D) a picture of all of the members of a family

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which sequence lists the periods of prenatal development in the correct developmental progression from earliest to latest?

A) embryo, fetus, zygote
B) zygote, fetus, embryo
C) fetus, zygote, embryo
D) zygote, embryo, fetus

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Which statement(s) about the number of males and females is true? Statement A: Sperm containing a Y chromosome swim faster than those containing an X chromosome. Statement B: Male fetuses are more vulnerable to miscarriage than are female fetuses. Statement C: Cultural values and governmental policy contribute to the differences in the number of male and female babies born and raised in some societies.

A) Statements A and C only
B) Statement C only
C) Statements A and B only
D) Statements A, B, and C

Question 5

In Canada, what traditional practice may have influenced the ratio of male and female children in a society?

A) The practice of abandoning female babies in Inuit culture.
B) The practice of abandoning male babies in Inuit culture.
C) The practice of "testing" the strength of male newborns by leaving them exposed in the outdoors for 24 hours after birth in Inuit culture.
D) The practice of sending excess male children out to sea when there were more males than food could be provided for in Inuit culture.

Question 6

Sperm and eggs are referred to as:

A) gametes.
B) embryos.
C) zygotes.
D) genetic cells.

Question 7

Germ cells contain _____ chromosome pairs.

A) 13
B) 23
C) 49
D) 92

Question 8

Which sequence lists the periods of prenatal development in the correct developmental progression?

A) germinal, zygotic, embryonic
B) zygotic, germinal, fetal
C) germinal, embryonic, fetal
D) embryonic, germinal, fetal

Question 9

If you were to take a sample of 100 newborns in Canada, approximately how many babies would be male?

A) 49
B) 50
C) 51
D) 53

Question 10

The Beng people of West Africa believe that life begins:

A) at conception, as an angel is believed to enter the fertilized egg.
B) during the third trimester, as this is the time at which independent thoughts are believed to begin.
C) at birth, as the newborn is introduced to the sun at this time.
D) when the umbilical stump drops off, as this is when the newborn is believed to emerge from the spirit village and become a person.

Question 11

Which developmental process occurs earliest?

A) cell migration
B) aptosis
C) cell division
D) cell differentiation

Question 12

Conception is:

A) the union of egg and sperm.
B) sexual intercourse.
C) meiosis.
D) the embedding of the fertilized egg into the uterine wall.

Question 13

Which activity is consistent with the beliefs of the Beng people of West Africa about when life begins?

A) elaborately painting newborns' faces
B) protecting the umbilical stump from drying out and falling off
C) allowing newborns to cry for several minutes before tending to them
D) All of these activities are consistent with those beliefs.

Question 14

Aristotle supported the idea of epigenesis, the notion that:

A) prenatal development begins with a new miniature individual already preformed.
B) new structures and functions emerge throughout prenatal development.
C) prenatal development begins in the center of the body of the new individual.
D) Eve was created out of Adam's rib.

Question 15

The germinal period begins with _____ and ends with _____.

A) conception; implantation
B) conception; cell differentiation
C) implantation; birth
D) cell differentiation; birth

Question 16

Gametes form through the process of:

A) mitosis.
B) conception.
C) meiosis.
D) germinalization.

Question 17

Cell division in the embryonic period is referred to as:

A) meiosis.
B) apoptosis.
C) neurosis.
D) mitosis.

Question 18

Which statement about the "survival of the fittest" principle and conception is true?

A) This principle applies only to the process of egg release from the fallopian tube, not to the other processes involved in conception.
B) The eggs that manage to reach the sperm are likely to be healthy, as eggs with serious defects tend to be unable to reach the sperm.
C) The sperm that manage to reach the egg are likely to be healthy, as sperm with serious defects tend to be unable to reach the egg.
D) This principle does not come into play until a child is born.

Question 19

Once sperm have entered the vagina, how many typically get close to the egg?

A) one or two
B) approximately 200
C) hundreds of thousands
D) millions

Question 20

A fertilized egg is termed a(n):

A) embryo.
B) zygote.
C) fetus.
D) gamete.

Question 21

Which occurrence is an example of mitosis?

A) splitting of the fertilized egg into two equal parts
B) death of cells in between the ridges on the hand plate
C) movement of new cells into the outer layer of the brain
D) specialization of eye cells

Question 22

Which process is an example of cell differentiation?

A) splitting of the fertilized egg into two equal parts
B) death of cells in between the ridges on the hand plate
C) movement of new cells into the outer layer of the brain
D) specialization of eye cells

Question 23

Which statement about apoptosis is true?

A) Apoptosis is a necessary part of development.
B) Apoptosis signals there might be a problem with prenatal development.
C) Apoptosis explains why stem cells are sought after by researchers.
D) Apoptosis is also called cell migration.

Question 24

A mad scientist wishes to create a nonhuman animal with a tongue on its back. Presuming that the scientist believes in phylogenetic continuity, when would the scientist be MOST likely to perform the cell transplant?

A) early in the fetal period
B) late in the germinal period
C) early in the embryonic period
D) early in the germinal period

Question 25

A belief in phylogenetic continuity is necessary for developmentalists to:

A) understand that prenatal experiences can affect adult development.
B) predict rates of infant mortality.
C) test hypotheses about human development on chimpanzees.
D) comprehend how stem cells function.

Question 26

Which is a true statement about the development of sex organs?

A) If the mother produces testosterone, then the fetus will develop male organs; if the mother produces estrogen, then the fetus will develop female sex organs.
B) If the fetus produces testosterone, then it will develop male organs; if the fetus produces estrogen, then it will develop female sex organs.
C) If the fetus produces high levels of testosterone, then it will develop male organs; if the fetus produces moderate levels of testosterone, then it will develop female sex organs.
D) If the fetus produces testosterone, then it will develop male organs; if the fetus produces no testosterone, then it will develop female sex organs.

Question 27

The idea that humans share some developmental processes with other animals because of their shared evolutionary history is referred to as:

A) FASD.
B) developmental resilience.
C) fetal programming.
D) phylogenetic continuity.

Question 28

Cell differentiation refers to the _____ of cells.

A) division
B) specialization
C) migration
D) death

Question 29

Phylogenetic continuity refers to the:

A) expectation that some cells have a programmed suicide and thus selectively disappear.
B) notion that stem cells may be the key to curing diseases such as Parkinson's and Alzheimer's.
C) idea that humans share some characteristics and developmental processes with other animals.
D) relation between a cell's function before and after migration.

Question 30

The fact that researchers interested in human developmental processes often examine rats is an indication that they believe in:

A) stem cell flexibility.
B) the ethical treatment of animals.
C) apoptosis.
D) phylogenetic continuity.

Question 31

The study in which cells located in the eye region of a frog embryo were moved to its belly demonstrated which property of cell functions?

A) The location of a given cell before migration determines its function.
B) The location of a given cell after migration determines its function.
C) The genetic makeup of a given cell before migration determines its function.
D) The genetic makeup of a given cell after migration determines its function.

Question 32

The level of _____ determines whether a fetus develops female or male sex organs.

A) testosterone produced by the mother
B) progesterone produced by the mother
C) testosterone produced by the fetus
D) progesterone produced by the fetus

Question 33

Research demonstrating that it is the scent of amniotic fluid that guides a newborn rat to its mother's nipple is evidence of:

A) the similarity of rats and humans in their taste preferences.
B) fetal learning.
C) phylogenetic continuity.
D) rats' poor maternal instincts.

Question 34

Embryonic cells are also known as:

A) stem cells.
B) divided cells.
C) fertilized eggs.
D) zygotic cells.

Question 35

Regarding the flexibility of a cell's function during the embryonic and fetal periods, cells are:

A) initially flexible and then become inflexible.
B) initially inflexible and then become more flexible.
C) flexible throughout the embryonic and fetal periods.
D) inflexible throughout the embryonic and fetal periods.

Question 36

Which event is thought to be apoptosis?

A) splitting of the fertilized egg into two equal parts
B) loss of cells in between the ridges on the hand plate
C) movement of new cells into the outer layer of the brain
D) specialization of eye cells

Question 37

Cell migration occurs during which period?

A) apoptosis
B) fetal
C) germinal
D) embryonic

Question 38

Researchers working on regenerative medicine are interested in early embryonic stem cells because of their:

A) flexibility.
B) genetic makeup.
C) size.
D) specialized function.

Question 39

Stem cells:

A) have varying genetic makeups.
B) contain half the genetic material of the individual.
C) are flexible in function.
D) have none of these qualities.

Question 40

Apoptosis refers to:

A) programmed cell death.
B) cell reproduction.
C) cell migration.
D) cell division.

Question 41

After the implantation of the zygote, as the ball of cells begins to differentiate, the inner cell mass becomes the:

A) fetus.
B) gamete.
C) embryo.
D) support system.

Question 42

Identical twins most often originate when:

A) two eggs are fertilized by two sperm.
B) an egg splits and is fertilized by two sperm.
C) an inner cell mass splits in half.
D) an embryo splits in half.

Question 43

The placental membrane allows _____ to pass through it.

A) oxygen, carbon dioxide, blood, and some antibodies
B) blood, urea, minerals, and nutrients
C) all antibodies, nutrients, urea, and oxygen
D) carbon dioxide, nutrients, minerals, and some antibodies

Question 44

Which statement about prenatal development of the heart is true?

A) By 6 weeks, the heart has developed into its basic adult structure.
B) At 12 weeks, the heart begins to beat and circulate blood.
C) By 4 weeks, the heart is beating and circulating blood.
D) At 16 weeks, the heart develops into its basic adult structure.

Question 45

Which statement about the rate of prenatal development is true?

A) Earlier development takes place at a more rapid pace than later development.
B) Later development takes place at a more rapid pace than earlier development.
C) The pace of development remains relatively continuous.
D) Development begins slowly, speeds up, and then slows down again.

Question 46

The three layers of the inner cell mass develop into:

A) different parts of the body of the embryo.
B) the fetus, the zygote, and the embryo.
C) the embryo, the placenta, and the umbilical cord.
D) different parts of the neural tube.

Question 47

Which statement about the levels of genetic similarity of identical twins, same-sex fraternal twins, and other same-sex sibling pairs is true?

A) Same-sex fraternal twins and other same-sex sibling pairs have an equal level of genetic similarity, and they are both less genetically similar than identical twins.
B) Same-sex fraternal and identical twins have an equal level of genetic similarity, and they are both more genetically similar than other same-sex sibling pairs.
C) Same-sex fraternal twins are less genetically similar than identical twins and more genetically similar than other same-sex sibling pairs.
D) Identical twins, same-sex fraternal twins, and other same-sex sibling pairs all have equal levels of genetic similarity.

Question 48

Cephalocaudal development refers to the tendency for development to take place from _____ to _____.

A) head; body
B) body; head
C) inside; outside
D) outside; inside

Question 49

The _____ protects the fetus from bumps and jolts.

A) umbilical cord
B) amniotic fluid
C) neural tube
D) placenta

Question 50

Gina and Margaret are pregnant at the same time. Gina's fetus is quite active throughout the day, whereas Margaret's fetus is rather inactive. Which explanation would be the BEST guess as to how active their infants will be?

A) Gina's infant is likely to be more active than Margaret's infant.
B) Margaret's infant is likely to be more active than Gina's infant.
C) Gina's infant and Margaret's infant will probably be similar in activity level, as all infants have similar levels of activity.
D) There is no way to predict postnatal activity level from prenatal activity level, so no guess can be made about the infants' activity levels.

Question 51

For which fetal behaviour is there no clear explanation?

A) breathing movements
B) hiccups
C) swallowing
D) moving arms and legs

Question 52

Approximately how long after conception does the fetus begin to make movements?

A) 3 hours
B) 5 weeks
C) 12 weeks
D) 5 months

Question 53

In general, prenatal development occurs in such a manner that areas close to the _____ develop earlier than areas farther away from it.

A) spinal cord
B) heart
C) head
D) large intestine

Question 54

The neural tube develops into the:

A) internal organs.
B) brain and spinal cord.
C) digestive system.
D) inner layers of skin.

Question 55

Which organ contains the blood vessels running between the embryo and the placenta?

A) umbilical cord
B) amniotic sac
C) neural tube
D) amniotic fluid

Question 56

Which organ acts as a defensive barrier against toxins and infections?

A) umbilical cord
B) amniotic sac
C) placenta
D) amniotic fluid

Question 57

Which activity is NOT a function of the placenta?

A) allowing for the transport of nutrients to the fetus
B) allowing for the removal of waste products from the fetus
C) cushioning the fetus
D) providing a barrier to infection

Question 58

Which item is an example of the active participation of the fetus in its own development?

A) fetal alcohol syndrome
B) hormonal influence on development of sex organs
C) placental defense against toxins and infections
D) cephalocaudal development

Question 59

Which adjective describes a characteristic of the placenta?

A) transparent
B) watery
C) watertight
D) semipermeable

Question 60

The brain and lungs are well enough developed by the _____ week that the fetus has a chance of surviving on its own without medical intervention.

A) 14th
B) 28th
C) 34th
D) 37th

Question 61

Newborns prefer to listen to:

A) another woman's voice over their mothers' voices.
B) their mothers' language over another language.
C) novel stories rather than familiar stories.
D) Newborns show no auditory preferences.

Question 62

In regard to fetal activity and inactivity, fetuses:

A) do not have true sleep states, but they do have periods of inactivity while awake.
B) have periods of high activity and rest while awake, and have both active and quiet sleep states.
C) are essentially asleep most of the day and night, but their sleep can be active or quiet.
D) are in constant motion throughout the day and night.

Question 63

Which sound is a newborn MOST likely to prefer?

A) mother's voice
B) mother's voice, muffled
C) mother's voice, at a faster rate of speech
D) father's voice

Question 64

Which sound(s) does the fetus hear?

A) intonation and pattern of the mother's speech
B) voices of people talking to the mother
C) blood pumping through the mother's vascular system
D) all of these

Question 65

At the end of her pregnancy, Joshua's mother's diet included a lot of ginger. Based on the research cited in the text, it is MOST likely that newborn Joshua will:

A) have no memory for the smell or taste of ginger because maternal diet does not affect prenatal experience.
B) have no memory for the smell or taste of ginger because fetal memory is very short-lived.
C) remember the smell and taste of ginger, but this memory will last only a week or two.
D) remember the smell and taste of ginger well into his first year.

Question 66

The fetal behaviour of swallowing is thought to:

A) continually clean the internal organs as they develop.
B) promote the normal development of the palate.
C) be somewhat harmful to the development of the intestines.
D) be one of the earliest prenatal movements.

Question 67

Habituation indicates that a fetus _____ a stimulus.

A) likes
B) dislikes
C) has learned to recognize
D) has failed to perceive

Question 68

In terms of the fetus's taste experiences and preferences, the fetus:

A) does not drink or eat through its mouth, and thus it has no taste experiences or preferences.
B) drinks amniotic fluid, but the fluid has a constant flavor, and thus the fetus has no taste preferences.
C) drinks amniotic fluid, but it cannot distinguish among different flavors in the fluid and thus has no taste preferences.
D) drinks amniotic fluid, can distinguish among different flavors in the fluid, and prefers sweet flavors.

Question 69

Which sense is LEAST stimulated in the uterus?

A) taste
B) sight
C) hearing
D) smell

Question 70

What advice should be given to expectant parents who are interested in educating their child in a foreign language and classical literature before birth?

A) Fetuses have no ability to learn anything while in the womb, and thus any talking, singing, or reading you do will not be remembered by the fetus after it is born.
B) Although your child may come to recognize and even prefer the patterns of the language and literature he or she is exposed to while in the womb, babies are unable to hear specific words or learn any kind of factual knowledge while in the womb.
C) You will give your child a sufficient head start if you pipe foreign language and classical literature recordings into the womb.
D) If you want your child to become fluent in a foreign language and appreciate literature, you must start before the child is born.

Question 71

Of the following, which fetus is likely to be the most active?

A) 9-week-old
B) 12-week-old
C) 25-week-old
D) 32-week-old

Question 72

The study by DeCasper and Spence in which pregnant women read to their fetuses from The Cat in the Hat demonstrated that newborn infants were _____ to recognize the story they had heard while in the uterus, and/but _____ prefer it over other stories.

A) able; did
B) able; did not
C) unable; did
D) unable; did not

Question 73

Which activity is NOT generally performed by fetuses?

A) sucking
B) moving chest wall in and out
C) scratching itches
D) swallowing

Question 74

Habituation involves a(n) _____ heart rate response.

A) increased
B) decreased
C) unpredictable
D) variable

Question 75

Regarding taste and smell, amniotic fluid:

A) has a constant taste and smell.
B) can take on a variety of flavors but has a constant smell.
C) has a constant taste but can take on a variety of odors.
D) can take on a variety of flavors and odors.

Question 76

An 8-month-old fetus who hears a phone ring repeatedly over the course of several minutes probably experiences:

A) initial changes in heart rate, with decreased changes as the ringing continues.
B) initial changes in heart rate, with increased changes as the ringing continues.
C) no changes in heart rate initially, but increased changes as the ringing continues.
D) no changes in heart rate throughout the ringing.

Question 77

Infant preferences based on prenatal experience have been demonstrated for:

A) sounds.
B) flavors.
C) smells.
D) all of these.

Question 78

Scientific evidence has demonstrated that:

A) when saccharin was injected into amniotic fluid, the mothers' urine showed that the fetuses ingested more amniotic fluid when it had been sweetened.
B) when offered chocolate milk versus orange juice, preterm infants drank more chocolate milk.
C) fetuses smiled more when fed a sugar solution than when fed a saline solution.
D) the idea that fetuses prefer sweet flavors is merely an assumption that was made based on research conducted with newborns.

Question 79

A fetus's decreased response to a repeated stimulus is termed:

A) sensitization.
B) desensitization.
C) habituation.
D) dishabituation.

Question 80

The earliest time at which fetal habituation has been observed is _____ weeks.

A) 16
B) 25
C) 30
D) 37