Deck 2: Prenatal Development and the Newborn Period

Question 1

Which statement about the "survival of the fittest" principle and conception is TRUE?

A) This principle applies only to the process of egg release from the fallopian tube, not to the other processes involved in conception.
B) The eggs that manage to reach the sperm are likely to be healthy, as eggs with serious defects tend to be unable to reach the sperm.
C) The sperm that manage to reach the egg are likely to be healthy, as sperm with serious defects tend to be unable to reach the egg.
D) This principle does not come into play until a child is born.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which concept is consistent with Aristotle's beliefs about prenatal development?

A) The effects of thalidomide on prenatal development vary depending on when during the pregnancy the mother took the drug.
B) Infants born prematurely already have all the correct structures but in miniature.
C) Female eggs contain minuscule preformed human beings.
D) None of these concepts is consistent with Aristotle's beliefs.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Germ cells contain _____ chromosome pairs.

A) 13
B) 23
C) 49
D) 92

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Which sequence lists the periods of prenatal development in the CORRECT developmental progression from earliest to latest?

A) embryo, fetus, zygote
B) zygote, fetus, embryo
C) fetus, zygote, embryo
D) zygote, embryo, fetus

Question 5

A fertilized egg is termed a(n):

A) embryo.
B) zygote.
C) fetus.
D) gamete.

Question 6

Which item would likely be MOST interesting to a scientist interested in embryos?

A) an X-ray of the internal organs of a 2-year-old child
B) the ultrasound images of an unborn fetus at 4 weeks following conception
C) a blood test of a pregnant woman
D) a picture of all of the members of a family

Question 7

Aristotle supported the idea of epigenesis, the notion that:

A) prenatal development begins with a new miniature individual already preformed.
B) new structures and functions emerge throughout prenatal development.
C) prenatal development begins in the centre of the body of the new individual.
D) woman was created out of the rib of a man.

Question 8

Sperm and eggs are referred to as:

A) gametes.
B) embryos.
C) zygotes.
D) genetic cells.

Question 9

Which sequence CORRECTLY lists the periods of prenatal development in the correct developmental progression?

A) zygotic, embryonic, germinal
B) zygotic, germinal, fetal
C) germinal, embryonic, fetal
D) embryonic, germinal, fetal

Question 10

Which developmental process occurs EARLIEST?

A) cell migration
B) apoptosis
C) cell division
D) cell differentiation

Question 11

Cell division in the embryonic period is referred to as:

A) meiosis.
B) apoptosis.
C) neurosis.
D) mitosis.

Question 12

Once sperm have entered the vagina, how many typically get close to the egg?

A) one or two
B) approximately 200
C) hundreds of thousands
D) millions

Question 13

How many sperm are ejaculated during sexual intercourse?

A) 200 million
B) 500 million
C) 200
D) 500

Question 14

The Beng people of West Africa believe that life begins:

A) at conception, as an angel is believed to enter the fertilized egg.
B) during the third trimester, as this is the time at which independent thoughts are believed to begin.
C) at birth, as the newborn is introduced to the sun at this time.
D) when the umbilical stump drops off, as this is when the newborn is believed to emerge from the spirit village and become a person.

Question 15

If sexual intercourse takes place near the time the egg is released, _____ is possible.

A) conception
B) implantation
C) fertilization
D) meiosis

Question 16

Conception is:

A) the union of egg and sperm.
B) sexual intercourse.
C) meiosis.
D) the embedding of the fertilized egg into the uterine wall.

Question 17

Which statement(s) about the number of males and females is/are TRUE? Statement A: Sperm containing a Y chromosome swim faster than those containing an X chromosome.
Statement B: Male fetuses are more vulnerable to miscarriage than are female fetuses.
Statement C: Cultural values and governmental policy contribute to the differences in the number of male and female babies born and raised in some societies.

A) Statements A and C only
B) Statement C only
C) Statements A and B only
D) Statements B and C only

Question 18

Which occurrence is an example of mitosis?

A) splitting of the fertilized egg into two equal parts
B) death of cells in between the ridges on the hand plate
C) movement of new cells into the outer layer of the brain
D) specialization of eye cells

Question 19

Gametes form through the process of:

A) mitosis.
B) conception.
C) meiosis.
D) germinalization.

Question 20

Which activity is consistent with the beliefs of the Beng people of West Africa about when life begins?

A) elabourately painting newborns' faces
B) protecting the umbilical stump from drying out and falling off
C) allowing newborns to cry for several minutes before tending to them
D) All of these activities are consistent with those beliefs.

Question 21

Which statement about apoptosis is TRUE?

A) Apoptosis is a necessary part of development.
B) Apoptosis signals there might be a problem with prenatal development.
C) Apoptosis explains why stem cells are sought after by researchers.
D) Apoptosis is also called cell migration.

Question 22

A belief in phylogenic continuity is necessary for developmentalists to:

A) understand that prenatal experiences can affect adult development.
B) predict rates of infant mortality.
C) test hypotheses about human development on chimpanzees.
D) comprehend how stem cells function.

Question 23

Phylogenetic continuity refers to the:

A) expectation that some cells have a programmed suicide and thus selectively disappear.
B) notion that stem cells may be the key to curing diseases such as Parkinson's and Alzheimer's.
C) idea that humans share some characteristics and developmental processes with other animals.
D) relation between a cell's function before and after migration.

Question 24

Which process is an example of cell differentiation?

A) splitting of the fertilized egg into two equal parts
B) death of cells in between the ridges on the hand plate
C) movement of new cells into the outer layer of the brain
D) specialization of eye cells

Question 25

The fact that researchers interested in human developmental processes often examine rats is an indication that they believe in:

A) stem cell flexibility.
B) the ethical treatment of animals.
C) apoptosis.
D) phylogenetic continuity.

Question 26

The presence of _____ determines whether a fetus develops female or male sex organs.

A) testosterone produced by the mother
B) progesterone produced by the mother
C) androgens produced by the fetus
D) progesterone produced by the fetus

Question 27

Regarding the flexibility of a cell's function during the embryonic and fetal periods, cells are:

A) initially flexible and then become inflexible.
B) initially inflexible and then become more flexible.
C) flexible throughout the embryonic and fetal periods.
D) inflexible throughout the embryonic and fetal periods.

Question 28

The idea that humans share some developmental processes with other animals because of their shared evolutionary history is referred to as:

A) FASD.
B) developmental resilience.
C) fetal programming.
D) phylogenetic continuity.

Question 29

Stem cells:

A) have varying genetic makeups.
B) contain half the genetic material of the individual.
C) do not have a fixed function.
D) have stable genetic makeups.

Question 30

Researchers working on regenerative medicine are interested in early embryonic stem cells because of their:

A) developmental flexibility.
B) genetic makeup.
C) size.
D) specialized function.

Question 31

Embryonic cells are also known as:

A) stem cells.
B) divided cells.
C) fertilized eggs.
D) zygotic cells.

Question 32

The study in which cells located in the eye region of a frog embryo were moved to its belly demonstrated which property of cell functions?

A) The location of a given cell before migration determines its function.
B) The location of a given cell after migration determines its function.
C) The genetic makeup of a given cell before migration determines its function.
D) The genetic makeup of a given cell after migration determines its function.

Question 33

Apoptosis refers to:

A) programmed cell death.
B) cell reproduction.
C) cell migration.
D) cell division.

Question 34

Which item is an example of the active participation of the fetus in its own development?

A) fetal alcohol syndrome
B) hormonal influence on development of sex organs
C) placental defense against toxins and infections
D) cephalocaudal development

Question 35

Cell differentiation refers to the _____ of cells.

A) relocation
B) specialization
C) migration
D) death

Question 36

Which event is thought to be apoptosis?

A) splitting of the fertilized egg into two equal parts
B) loss of cells in between the ridges on the hand plate
C) movement of new cells into the outer layer of the brain
D) specialization of eye cells

Question 37

Cell migration occurs during which period?

A) apoptosis
B) fetal
C) germinal
D) embryonic

Question 38

A mad scientist wishes to create a nonhuman animal with a tongue on its back. Presuming that the scientist believes in phylogenetic continuity, when would the scientist be MOST likely to perform the cell transplant?

A) early in the fetal period
B) late in the germinal period
C) early in the embryonic period
D) early in the germinal period

Question 39

Research demonstrating that it is the scent of amniotic fluid that guides a newborn rat to its mother's nipple is evidence of:

A) the similarity of rats and humans in their taste preferences.
B) fetal learning.
C) phylogenetic continuity.
D) rats' poor maternal instincts.

Question 40

Which statement about the development of sex organs is TRUE?

A) If the mother produces testosterone, then the fetus will develop male organs; if the mother produces estrogen, then the fetus will develop female sex organs.
B) If the fetus produces testosterone, then it will develop male organs; if the fetus produces estrogen, then it will develop female sex organs.
C) If the fetus produces high levels of testosterone, then it will develop male organs; if the fetus produces moderate levels of testosterone, then it will develop female sex organs.
D) If the fetus produces androgens, then it will develop male organs; if the fetus produces no androgens, then it will develop female sex organs.

Question 41

Which adjective describes a characteristic of the placenta?

A) transparent
B) watery
C) watertight
D) semipermeable

Question 42

A transparent, fluid-filled membrane that surrounds and protects the fetus is called the:

A) neural tube.
B) amniotic fluid.
C) amniotic sac.
D) placenta.

Question 43

This hormone increases the flow of maternal blood to the uterus.

A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) testosterone
D) apoptosis

Question 44

The nose and the mouth are almost fully formed during the _____ week of prenatal development.

A) 4th
B) 6th
C) 8th
D) 10th

Question 45

The _____ protects the fetus from bumps and jolts.

A) umbilical cord
B) amniotic fluid
C) neural tube
D) placenta

Question 46

The neural tube develops into the:

A) internal organs.
B) brain and spinal cord.
C) digestive system.
D) inner layers of skin.

Question 47

John and James are fraternal twins. Which statement explains how fraternal twins form?

A) Fraternal twins develop from one fertilized egg that divides into three different cell masses at the moment of conception.
B) Fraternal twins result when two different eggs are released from the ovary into the fallopian tube and both are fertilized.
C) Fraternal twins are formed when two different sperm enter the same egg.
D) Fraternal and maternal twins are formed exactly the same way.

Question 48

Which activity is NOT a function of the placenta?

A) allowing for the transport of nutrients to the fetus
B) allowing for the removal waste products from the fetus
C) cushioning the fetus
D) providing a barrier to infection

Question 49

Which organ acts as a defensive barrier against toxins and infections?

A) the umbilical cord
B) the amniotic sac
C) the placenta
D) the amniotic fluid

Question 50

Which statement about the levels of genetic similarity of identical twins, same-sex fraternal twins, and other same-sex sibling pairs is TRUE?

A) Same-sex fraternal twins and other same-sex sibling pairs have an equal level of genetic similarity, and they are both less genetically similar than are identical twins.
B) Same-sex fraternal and identical twins have an equal level of genetic similarity, and they are both more genetically similar than are other same-sex sibling pairs.
C) Same-sex fraternal twins are less genetically similar than are identical twins and more genetically similar than are other same-sex sibling pairs.
D) Identical twins, same-sex fraternal twins, and other same-sex sibling pairs all have equal levels of genetic similarity.

Question 51

After the implantation of the zygote, as the ball of cells begins to differentiate, the inner cell mass becomes the:

A) fetus.
B) gamete.
C) embryo.
D) support system.

Question 52

Which organ contains the blood vessels running between the embryo and the placenta?

A) the umbilical cord
B) the amniotic sac
C) the neural tube
D) the amniotic fluid

Question 53

The heart has achieved its basic adult structure by the _____ week of prenatal development.

A) 4th
B) 6th
C) 8th
D) 11th

Question 54

Which statement about the rate of prenatal development is TRUE?

A) Earlier development takes place at a more rapid pace than later development.
B) Later development takes place at a more rapid pace than earlier development.
C) The pace of development remains relatively continuous.
D) Development begins slowly, speeds up, and then slows down again.

Question 55

Identical twins most often originate when:

A) two eggs are fertilized by two sperm.
B) an egg splits and is fertilized by two sperm.
C) an inner cell mass splits in half.
D) an embryo splits in half.

Question 56

Cephalocaudal development refers to the tendency for development to take place from _____ to _____.

A) head; body
B) body; head
C) inside; outside
D) outside; inside

Question 57

The placental membrane allows _____ to pass through it.

A) oxygen, carbon dioxide, blood, and some antibodies
B) blood, urea, minerals, and nutrients
C) all antibodies, nutrients, urea, and oxygen
D) carbon dioxide, nutrients, minerals, and some antibodies

Question 58

The three layers of the inner cell mass develop into:

A) different parts of the body of the fetus.
B) the fetus, the zygote, and the embryo.
C) the embryo, the placenta, and the umbilical cord.
D) different parts of the neural tube.

Question 59

By the _____ week of prenatal development, the external genitalia are developed.

A) 4th
B) 6th
C) 8th
D) 16th

Question 60

Stacey and Macey are identical twins. What does this mean in terms of their genetic makeup?

A) The DNA from their mother is the same, but their DNA differs in terms of what they received from their father.
B) The DNA from their father is the same, but their DNA differs in terms of what they received from their mother.
C) They have inherited different DNA from both of their parents.
D) They have exactly the same DNA.

Question 61

Habituation indicates that a fetus _____ a stimulus.

A) likes
B) dislikes
C) has learned to recognize
D) has failed to perceive

Question 62

Which statement about prenatal development of the heart is TRUE?

A) By 6 weeks, the heart has developed into its basic adult structure.
B) At 12 weeks, the heart begins to beat and circulate blood.
C) By 4 weeks, the heart is beating and circulating blood.
D) At 16 weeks, the heart develops into its basic adult structure.

Question 63

In terms of the fetus's taste experiences and preferences, the fetus:

A) does not drink or eat through its mouth, and thus it has no taste experiences or preferences.
B) ingests amniotic fluid, but the fluid has a constant flavour, and thus the fetus has no taste preferences.
C) ingests amniotic fluid, but it cannot distinguish among different flavours in the fluid and thus has no taste preferences.
D) ingests amniotic fluid, can distinguish among different flavours in the fluid, and prefers sweet flavours.

Question 64

The fetal behaviour of swallowing is thought to:

A) continually clean the internal organs as they develop.
B) promote the normal development of the palate.
C) be somewhat harmful to the development of the intestines.
D) be one of the earliest prenatal movements.

Question 65

Regarding taste and smell, amniotic fluid:

A) has a constant taste and smell.
B) can take on a variety of flavours but has a constant smell.
C) has a constant taste but can take on a variety of odours.
D) can take on a variety of flavours and odours.

Question 66

An 8-month-old fetus who hears a phone ring repeatedly over the course of several minutes probably experiences:

A) initial changes in heart rate, with decreased changes as the ringing continues.
B) initial changes in heart rate, with increased changes as the ringing continues.
C) no changes in heart rate initially but increased changes as the ringing continues.
D) no changes in heart rate throughout the ringing.

Question 67

Which sound(s) does the fetus hear?

A) intonation and pattern of the mother's speech
B) voices of people talking to the mother
C) blood pumping through the mother's vascular system
D) maternal sounds, such as her heartbeat, breathing, and digestion

Question 68

By the _____ week of prenatal development, most of the movements that will be present at birth have appeared.

A) 4th
B) 6th
C) 12th
D) 16th

Question 69

In regard to fetal activity and inactivity, fetuses:

A) do not have true sleep states, but they do have periods of inactivity while awake.
B) have periods of high activity and rest while awake, and they have both active and quiet sleep states.
C) are essentially asleep most of the day and night, but their sleep can be active or quiet.
D) are in constant motion throughout the day and night.

Question 70

The fetus experiences tactile stimulation in the womb as a result of:

A) the mother's digestive system.
B) the mother touching her abdomen.
C) other people interacting with the mother.
D) the fetus's own activity.

Question 71

Gina and Margaret are pregnant at the same time. Gina's fetus is quite active throughout the day, whereas Margaret's fetus is rather inactive. Which explanation would be the BEST guess as to how active their infants will be?

A) Gina's infant is likely to be more active than is Margaret's infant.
B) Margaret's infant is likely to be more active than is Gina's infant.
C) Gina's infant and Margaret's infant will probably be similar in activity level, as all infants have similar levels of activity.
D) There is no way to predict postnatal activity level from prenatal activity level, so no guess can be made about the infants' activity levels.

Question 72

Approximately how long after conception does the fetus begin to make movements?

A) 3 hours
B) 5 weeks
C) 12 weeks
D) 5 months

Question 73

For which fetal behaviour is there no clear explanation?

A) breathing movements
B) hiccups
C) swallowing
D) moving arms and legs

Question 74

Scientific evidence has demonstrated that:

A) when saccharin was injected into amniotic fluid, the mothers' urine showed that the fetuses ingested more amniotic fluid when it had been sweetened.
B) when offered chocolate milk versus orange juice, preterm infants drank more chocolate milk.
C) fetuses smiled more when fed a sugar solution than when fed a saline solution.
D) the idea that fetuses prefer sweet flavours is merely an assumption that was made based on research conducted with newborns.

Question 75

A fetus's decreased response to a repeated stimulus is termed:

A) sensitization.
B) desensitization.
C) habituation.
D) dishabituation.

Question 76

Which sense is LEAST stimulated in the uterus?

A) taste
B) sight
C) hearing
D) smell

Question 77

In general, prenatal development occurs in such a manner that areas close to the _____ develop earlier than do areas farther away from it.

A) spinal cord
B) heart
C) head
D) large intestine

Question 78

The brain and lungs are well enough developed by the _____ week that the fetus has a chance of surviving on its own without medical intervention.

A) 14th
B) 28th
C) 34th
D) 37th

Question 79

Which activity is NOT generally performed by fetuses?

A) sucking
B) moving chest wall in and out
C) scratching itches
D) swallowing

Question 80

Which fetus is likely to be the MOST active?

A) a 7-week-old
B) a 12-week-old
C) a 25-week-old
D) a 32-week-old