Deck 25: Pathologylaboratory

Question 1

Pathologists have specific codes for clinical pathology consultations.

Answer 1

True

Question 2

In what section would you locate codes to report venipunctures and arterial punctures?

A)Surgery
B)E/M
C)Medicine
D)Pathology/Laboratory

Answer 2

Surgery

Question 3

For repeat laboratory tests performed on the same day, the correct modifier is -51.

Answer 3

False

Question 4

During the evocative suppression testing, the correct codes for the physician's administration of the evocative or suppressive agents are reported depending on the method of administration.

Question 5

The postmortem codes 88000-88099 represent physician services only.

Question 6

When reporting organ or disease-oriented panels, if all but one of the tests within the panel is substantiated by the physician's documentation, it is acceptable to assign the code with modifier -52 to the code used to report the service.

Question 7

What type of drug test measures the amount of a drug in the specimen?

A)quantitative
B)qualitative
C)confirmatory
D)immunoassay

Question 8

In the Pathology/Laboratory section of the CPT, drugs are listed by their ____ names.

A)brand
B)manufacturer's
C)chemical
D)generic

Question 9

Services in pathology/laboratory are provided by a physician or by technologists under responsible supervision of a physician.

Question 10

Transfusion Medicine codes are located in the Pathology and Laboratory section.

Question 11

What is the name of the subsection within Pathology/Laboratory that deals with the laboratory work performed to determine cellular changes?

A)Microbiology
B)Surgical Pathology
C)Genetics
D)Cytopathology

Question 12

When coding chemistry tests, an analyte is measured in multiple specimens from different sources, or in specimens that are obtained at different times, the analyte is reported separately for each source and for each specimen.

Question 13

There are different codes for Helicobacter pylori (H.pylori) depending on the source of the specimen.

Question 14

A service that is rarely provided, unusual, variable, or new may require a special report in determining medical appropriateness of the service.

Question 15

A surgical pathology specimen that is not listed in the pathology code descriptions should be assigned a code that most closely reflects the physician's work involved compared to other specimens assigned to that code.

Question 16

What type of drug test measures the presence of a drug in the specimen?

A)quantitative
B)qualitative
C)confirmatory
D)immunoassay

Question 17

When a pathologist provides a consultation involving the examination and evaluation of a patient, the service is reported with 80500 or 80502.

Question 18

In Therapeutic Drug Assays (80150-80299), the examination is quantitative.

Question 19

What is the name given to grouped laboratory work that represents those tests commonly performed together?

A)multiples
B)indicators
C)panels
D)standing orders

Question 20

How many levels of Surgical Pathology are there?

A)2
B)3
C)5
D)6

Question 21

A stool test for Helicobacter pylori.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 22

A definitive drug screening for amphetamine.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 23

A Pap smear utilizing the Bethesda system done by manual screening and
computer-assisted re-screening under physician supervision.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 24

A chorionic gonadotropin stimulation panel with an estradiol response.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 25

The physician ordered a hemogram, hepatitis B surface antigen, antibody rubella, qualitative syphilis test, antibody screen, blood typing ABO, and a blood-typing RhD on a pregnant woman.
CPT Code panel: ____________________

Question 26

An influenza B immunofluorescence antigen detection.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 27

An intradermal tuberculosis TB test.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 28

Codes in the Pathology/Laboratory section, Evocation/Suppression Testing include which of the following?

A)complete service
B)test, injection, substance administered, physician time
C)injection and substance administered
D)test only

Question 29

Breath test for alcohol.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 30

A drug screening for methamphetamine, instrument assisted.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 31

What name is given to cultures for identification of organisms, as well as the identification of sensitivities of the organism to antibiotics?

A)quantitative/qualitative
B)culture/qualitative
C)culture/sensitivity
D)sensitivity/quantitative

Question 32

A dipstick urinalysis for ketones.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 33

A blood count, CBC, automated with a differential.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 34

A three-specimen glucose tolerance test.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 35

A sample of tissue from a suspect area can be further divided into which of the following?

A)specimen, block, section
B)block, section
C)sample, block, section
D)specimen, section

Question 36

The ____________________ panel consists of a CBC, hepatitis B, rubella, syphilis test, antibody screen, and blood typing ABO and RH.

A)general health
B)obstetric
C)lipid
D)acute hepatitis

Question 37

A serum amylase.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 38

Qualitative analysis is defined as:

A)determining the amounts and proportions of chemical constituents
B)analysis of a substance in order to ascertain the nature of chemical constituents

Question 39

A wet mount to determine a vaginal yeast infection using a KOH prep.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 40

Quantitative analysis is defined as:

A)determining the amounts and proportions of chemical constituents
B)analysis of a substance in order to ascertain the nature of chemical constituents

Question 41

Blood analysis for HGH.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 42

An immunoassay for tumor antigen, qualitative; CA 125.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 43

Code a hepatitis A, IgM antibody; hepatitis B core antibody, IgM; hepatitis C antibody, all ordered at the same time.
CPT Codes: ____________________ (three codes)

Question 44

A qualitative test for arsenic poisoning (a heavy metal).
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 45

Urinalysis codes are for ____________________ tests performed on urine.

Question 46

Alkaloids, definitive drug screening.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 47

Three specimens for total gastric acid.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 48

Postmortem examination, gross only with brain and spinal cord.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 49

A blood creatinine.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 50

Hepatic function panel.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 51

The range of codes in the Cytopathology subsection of the CPT manual is ___________________ (Make sure to include a dash with no spaces in your code range.XXXXX-XXXXX)

Question 52

Drug assay, acetaminophen, read by instrument assisted direct observation.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 53

Chemistry test for gases, blood, and O₂ saturation only by direct measurement.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 54

CLINICAL DIAGNOSIS AND HISTORY: Recurrent bladder tumor
TISSUE(S) SUBMITTED: Biopsy, bladder
GROSS DESCRIPTION: Specimen is received in fixative and consists of three pieces of tissue.The largest piece measures 0.3 x 0.3 cm and the smallest piece measures 0.2 x 0.1 cm in greatest dimensions.
MICROSCOPIC DESCRIPTION: 1 microscopic slide examined.
DIAGNOSIS: Urinary bladder, needle biopsy-chronic cystitis (cystica) with squamous metaplasia
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 55

Peripheral blood smear interpretation by physician with a written report.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 56

SURGICAL PATHOLOGY
CLINICAL HISTORY: BENIGN HYPERTROPHY OF PROSTATE.
SPECIMEN RECEIVED: PROSTATE CHIPS.
GROSS DESCRIPTION:
The specimen is labeled with the patient's name and "prostate," which consists of approximately 27 gm of pink-tan rubbery prostate fragments.Representative sections in 10 cassettes.
MICROSCOPIC DESCRIPTION:
Sections of prostate show both glandular and stromal nodular hyperplasia.Focally, glands show variable cystic dilatation, basal cell hyperplasia and there are focal mild acute and chronic inflammatory infiltrates.A few fragments show prostatic urethra with benign urothetium and mild chronic inflammatory infiltrates.There is a focus of infiltrative single, separate, loosely packed, small uniform low grade malignant glands with slightly enlarged hyperchromatic nuclei with nucleoli, with some cautery artifact, involving less than 1% of the specimen.
DIAGNOSIS:
Transurethral resection prostate:
Focal adenocarcinoma, primary Gleason grade 2, involving less than 1% of the specimen and adenomyomatous hyperplasia with mild acute and chronic inflammation.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 57

Sodium, urine.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 58

A thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) test.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 59

Immunology codes are used to report conditions of the ____________________ system.

Question 60

Fecal occult blood, single determination, for colorectal screening by guaiac.
CPT Code: ____________________

Question 61

Match each level of surgical pathology with the correct specimen below.
colon, total resection

A)Level II
B)Level III
C)Level IV
D)Level V
E)Level VI

Question 62

Match each level of surgical pathology with the correct specimen below.
vas deferens, sterilization

A)Level II
B)Level III
C)Level IV
D)Level V
E)Level VI

Question 63

Chemistry codes are for ________________ tests performed on material from any source.

Question 64

Match each level of surgical pathology with the correct specimen below.
bursa/synovial cyst

A)Level II
B)Level III
C)Level IV
D)Level V
E)Level VI

Question 65

Match each level of surgical pathology with the correct specimen below.
breast mastectomy-partial/simple

A)Level II
B)Level III
C)Level IV
D)Level V
E)Level VI

Question 66

Match each level of surgical pathology with the correct specimen below.
artery biopsy

A)Level II
B)Level III
C)Level IV
D)Level V
E)Level VI