Deck 27: Evolution of Life

Question 1

Homologous structures such as the bones in wings,flippers,and arms are most closely concerned with

A)comparative anatomy.
B)biogeography.
C)the fossil record.
D)comparative embryology.
E)comparative biochemistry.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

The extinction of the dinosaurs has been associated with

A)a virus leading to disease and massive loss of life.
B)dinosaurs preying upon each other until they became extinct.
C)a meteor impact at the end of the Cretaceous era that caused major cooling.
D)new chemicals and ions in the environment which caused dinosaurs to become sterile.
E)mammals who were more adapted and more able to acquire similar resources.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

The earliest forms of life on Earth are found in rocks that are estimated to be

A)1 million years old.
B)4 million years old.
C)1 billion years old.
D)3.5 billion years old.
E)4.6 billion years old.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Prokaryotic cells are represented by fossils that are dated back as far as _____ billion years ago.

A)1.5
B)2.5
C)3.5
D)4.5
E)10

Question 5

Almost all living organisms use DNA,ATP,and the same DNA triplet code.This is an example of evolution based on

A)the fossil record.
B)biogeography.
C)comparative anatomy.
D)comparative embryology.
E)biochemistry.

Question 6

What evidence would NOT be studied by a biogeographer?

A)continental drift or the movement of tectonic plates over time
B)amount of genetic similarity among current populations
C)ocean currents and wind patterns
D)ranges of animals and ability to migrate
E)the genetic makeup of organisms that evolved in separate but similar conditions

Question 7

Anatomical features that are fully developed and functional in one group of organisms but reduced and functionless in a similar group are termed

A)vestigial.
B)homologous.
C)analogous.
D)polygenic.
E)sympatric.

Question 8

Which fossil evidence is considered an intermediate between reptiles and birds?

A)Archaeopteryx
B)Eusthenopteron
C)Seymouria
D)synapsids
E)therapods

Question 9

Which pairing of occurrence and date is NOT correct?

A)origin of invertebrates-630 million years ago
B)origin of life-4.6 billion years ago
C)origin of eukaryotic cells-2.1 billion years ago
D)origin of prokaryotic cells-3.5 billion years ago
E)chordate evolution-545 million years ago

Question 10

Which of the following can be used to investigate the accumulation of small changes in the gene pool of a population over time?

A)structural proteins.
B)basic biochemical molecules that are universal.
C)blood type molecules.
D)similarities only based on available dietary proteins.
E)There are no restrictions,any amino acids for any structure would provide a legitimate comparison among organisms.

Question 11

Africa,Asia,South America,and Antarctica share some patterns of primitive (fossil)plants and early reptiles,but do not have similar mammal populations.This therefore

A)casts serious doubts upon the theory of continental drift and fused land masses.
B)is an unsolved puzzle probably due to the random nature of biological evolution.
C)suggests that a pattern of land bridges existed at different times in geological history.
D)suggests that the earlier plants and reptiles evolved while continents were joined but mammals radiated into diverse groups after separation.
E)suggests that the mammals evolved earlier while continents were joined but plants and reptiles radiated into diverse groups after separation.

Question 12

The position of mammals in evolution is best described as

A)they dominate life in the sea.
B)they were among the first animals to live on land and their variety outstrips all living things known.
C)they arose from mammal-like reptiles in the Triassic but remained small and insignificant while dinosaurs dominated the land.
D)mammals gave rise to birds.
E)mammals have been present since plants and other organisms first appeared on land.

Question 13

Transitional forms are seen in the fossil record that link all of these groups EXCEPT

A)reptiles and birds.
B)amphibians and reptiles.
C)fish and amphibians.
D)birds and mammals.
E)reptiles and mammals.

Question 14

The age of the earth is estimated to be about

A)1 million years old.
B)4 million years old.
C)1 billion years old.
D)2.5 billion years old.
E)4.6 billion years old.

Question 15

Mass extinctions

A)are the result of humans damaging the natural environment.
B)are the result of humans exploiting wildlife and using pesticides.
C)occurred in cycles when organisms fail to evolve.
D)have occurred about 4 or 5 times in fossil record,due in some cases to catastrophic changes.
E)require life to evolve again from protocells.

Question 16

Consider that the rock outcrops at the surface of the land in your neighborhood are Permian.What would be true if you dig downward?

A)You may find dinosaur fossils below.
B)You may find fossils of first flowers.
C)The Mesozoic layers will be present underneath.
D)A road cut in your area would reveal exactly the same species of fossils as a road cut through a Permian layer in Asia.
E)You may find fossils of the first reptiles or jawed fishes below.

Question 17

The geological time scale indicates the order of eras is Cenozoic as the most recent; the middle era is the Mesozoic,with dinosaurs as the major group; and the earliest era is the Paleozoic.Consider a hillside of rock that surfaces in your backyard that is identified as dating back to the Mesozoic era.What is possible?

A)Fossils from all other eras can still be found underneath if you dig far enough.
B)All periods of fossils were once present in the backyard but older ones were eroded away.
C)Fossils were mainly deposited when your backyard was sediment,so many layers might be missing,but any layer from Cenozoic to Paleozoic might be found.
D)Fossils were mainly deposited when your backyard was sediment,so many layers might be missing,but any layer from earlier Mesozoic through Paleozoic might be found.
E)Only one layer of fossils can be found at any site.

Question 18

A line of evidence NOT considered by Darwin in his development of the theory of natural selection is

A)comparative anatomy.
B)biogeography.
C)the fossil record.
D)geography.
E)biochemistry.

Question 19

Which of the following is NOT a method by which the general dates of the geological time scale can be determined?

A)Lower rock layers are older than surface layers.
B)Common assemblages of indicator fossils occur in layers with primitive layers lower.
C)Radioisotopes decay at constant rates and the ratio of isotopes-to-stable elements provides a relative age.
D)Carbon 14 should double in a sample every 5,730 years and so can be used to date organic matter.
E)Absolute and relative dating methods can both be used.

Question 20

Which evidence for evolution uses impressions of plants and animals pressed into sedimentary rock?

A)fossil record
B)biogeography
C)comparative anatomy
D)comparative embryology
E)comparative biochemistry

Question 21

All the members of a single species that occupy a particular area and are able to interbreed are a

A)subspecies.
B)gene pool.
C)population.
D)domain.
E)community.

Question 22

When only a few individuals survive unfavorable times,thereby losing the majority of genotypes in the next generation,it is called

A)natural selection.
B)a bottleneck effect.
C)a founder effect.
D)vestigial structures.
E)industrial melanism.

Question 23

A random alteration in the sequence of DNA nucleotides that provides a new variant of the gene is

A)gene mutation.
B)polymorphism.
C)gene frequency.
D)disruption.
E)allele frequency.

Question 24

The Amish of Lancaster,PA.have a higher frequency of an unusual form of dwarfism than the population at large.This is probably due to

A)natural selection.
B)a bottleneck effect.
C)a founder effect.
D)vestigial structures.
E)industrial melanism.

Question 25

The equation,p² + 2 pq + q² = 1.0,describes

A)the process of evolution.
B)the size of a population.
C)the rate of speciation of species p and q.
D)genotype frequencies of a nonevolving population.
E)evolution of a population.

Question 26

If the frequency of the dominant gene is 0.7,what is the frequency of the recessive gene?

A)also 0.7
B)0.49 or (0.07)²
C)approximately 0.27 (square root of 0.7)
D)0.3 (or 1.00 - 0.7)
E)0.14

Question 27

The ____ is the total number of alleles of all the gene loci in all the members of a population.

A)genetic drift
B)gene flow
C)gene pool
D)adaptive radiation
E)community

Question 28

What is the term used to describe the accumulation of small changes in the gene pool of a species over time?

A)genetic drift
B)founder effect
C)microevolution
D)directional selection
E)mutation rate

Question 29

Which of these conditions is NOT among the requirements of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A)no net mutations
B)no net migration of alleles into or out of the population
C)small population with genetic drift
D)no selection of one genotype over another
E)sexually reproducing and random mating population

Question 30

In comparing the number of differences in amino acids for cytochrome c: between a moth and a rattlesnake there are 31 different amino acids in the sequence,between a moth and a dog there are only 25,and there are 6 differences between a dog and a horse.Therefore,

A)this is sufficient evidence to prove the moth is related more to the dog than to the horse.
B)dogs had to evolve earlier than horses,since moths are more primitive.
C)evolution used to be considered a unifying theory until biochemical data showed only differences.
D)added to anatomical similarities and fossil records,this provides additional evidence for constructing a phylogeny or family tree.
E)biochemical information is not relevant to the evolution of organisms.

Question 31

A student proposes that left-handedness is a recessive trait that is therefore hidden in much of the human population.A survey of a class of 36 students finds that 27 (0.75)are right-handed and 9 (0.25)are left-handed.Using the Hardy-Weinberg formula,what would the expected genotype and allele frequencies be in this theoretical population?

A)0.75 right-handed homozygous dominant and 0.25 recessive homozygous for 3-to-1 right- to left-handed alleles in the population
B)0.25 right-handed homozygous,0.50 heterozygous,and 0.25 recessive homozygous for a 3-to-1 right- to left-handed alleles in the population
C)0.25 right-handed homozygous,0.50 heterozygous,and 0.25 recessive homozygous for a 0.5 allele frequency for each allele
D)0.50 right-handed homozygous,0.25 heterozygous,and 0.25 recessive homozygous for a 0.5 allele frequency for each allele
E)They cannot be estimated using these limited data.

Question 32

Which of the following does NOT reflect(s)the likely presence of a gene mutation(s)?

A)Fruit flies subjected to intense radiation breed a wider array of variable offspring.
B)A chemical leaking from the surface of an old abandoned coal mine alters a regulatory gene so that a cricket nymph develops an extra set of eyes.
C)The bacteria that cause gonorrhea,a common sexually transmitted disease,have previously been killed by penicillin; however,after continuous usage of the antibiotic,penicillin-resistant strains are now becoming prevalent.
D)Radiation causes an alteration of a DNA nucleotide sequence which is discovered when mapped,but which appears to be neither increasing nor decreasing in successive generations.
E)Offspring always have the same coloration as the parents.

Question 33

Which statement is NOT true about the founder effect?

A)It is a form of genetic drift.
B)It produces a high frequency of some rare alleles in a small isolated population.
C)Founding members contain a tiny fraction of the alleles found in the original population.
D)The founder effect occurs when a population is subjected to near extinction and then recovers,so that only a few alleles are left in survivors.
E)Chance determines which alleles are carried by the original founders.

Question 34

Social research indicates that a person is most likely to marry someone from the same village or city,or a high school or college classmate.Therefore,the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium does not apply well to human populations because

A)allelic changes in one direction are balanced by changes in the opposite direction.
B)there is no directional trend in selection of mates since most individuals marry someone.
C)individuals are not pairing up by chance across the whole population,and genetic drift is more likely to change gene frequencies.
D)this increases gene flow.
E)we accumulate adaptive traits that improve the population.

Question 35

A variety of genotypes and phenotypes in a population is useful because it

A)makes life more interesting.
B)allows the species to survive if the environment changes.
C)means that the gene pool is constant and unchanging.
D)makes genetic drift an unlikely occurrence.
E)will lead to nonrandom mating.

Question 36

The raw material for evolutionary change is

A)gene flow.
B)genetic drift.
C)mutation.
D)nonrandom reproduction.
E)natural selection.

Question 37

If the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is met,what is the net effect?

A)evolution leading to a population better adapted to an unchanging environment
B)evolution leading to a population better adapted to a changing environment
C)very slow and continuous evolution with no increased adaptation
D)no evolution because the alleles in the population remain the same
E)no evolution because the alleles in the population will change

Question 38

According to the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,in a population in which 1% does NOT have freckles (recessive),what percentage of the next population is likely to NOT have freckles?

A)None,since it is a recessive condition.
B)1%
C)2%
D)50%
E)99%

Question 39

If there is a change in the allele frequency of a gene pool due to chance,primarily in a small population,it is termed

A)mutations.
B)genetic drift.
C)gene flow.
D)nonrandom mating.
E)natural selection.

Question 40

Which of the following is true about genetic drift?

A)It is more likely to occur in a large population than in a small population.
B)It may lead to an allele becoming fixed in a population when its alternative allele is lost from the population.
C)It increases the number of heterozygotes in a population.
D)It increases the level of rare alleles in a population.
E)It reduces the chances of mutation in a population.

Question 41

Which of the following conditions does NOT contribute to evolution?

A)mutations
B)gene flow
C)genetic drift
D)natural selection
E)unchanging environmental conditions

Question 42

Lamarck's ideas on evolution were adopted by some Russian scientists,including Michurin and Lysenko in Stalinist Russia.Their textbooks printed Lysenko's assertions that a wheat plant could be made cold-hardy by conditioning in cold storage,or that workmen who develop strong muscles due to working in the mines would produce children who would be born stronger.Which of the major elements of evolution by natural selection is violated by these examples?

A)The organisms vary in traits.
B)The acquired characteristics are inherited.
C)More young are born than can survive.
D)Some individuals are better adapted to the environment.
E)The environment selects for phenotype.

Question 43

Which is NOT one of the preconditions in a population where natural selection is at work?

A)There is variation that can be inherited in a population.
B)The population always becomes adapted to its environment.
C)Many more individuals are produced by a population than can survive and reproduce.
D)Adaptive characteristics in some individuals make them more likely to survive and reproduce.
E)Heritable variations must be passed on the subsequent generations.

Question 44

Inbreeding within a population is an example of

A)mutations.
B)genetic drift.
C)gene flow.
D)nonrandom mating.
E)natural selection.

Question 45

Which type of natural selection occurs when an intermediate phenotype is favored?

A)disruptive selection
B)directional selection
C)stabilizing selection
D)genetic drift selection
E)adaptive radiation

Question 46

When he arrived at the Galápagos Islands,Darwin did not observe the amazing tool-using "woodpecker finch" that can modify twigs to pry out grubs.Because there are no true woodpeckers on the Galápagos Islands,this behavior allows this finch to exploit an untapped food source.However,not all members of this species exhibit this behavior,which is probably learned from watching other finches.Therefore,which of the following is NOT true?

A)Young isolated at hatching will not know how to do this.
B)It is probably not "hardwired" in the brain as a behavior passed on genetically.
C)There must be a great advantage to reaching this food source for this learned behavior to be repeated by most descendants each generation.
D)As an acquired characteristic,in a strict sense this is not part of the adaptive radiation of finches on the Galápagos.
E)This "learned" behavior will not lead to evolutionary change in the woodpecker population.

Question 47

Lamarck's proposal of the inheritance of acquired characteristics included the idea that

A)the continual stretching of giraffe's necks to reach leaves led to longer necks.
B)local catastrophes cause mass extinctions of species.
C)species are only produced through special creation.
D)species are fixed and unchanging over time.
E)organisms are acted on by the environment.

Question 48

Which of the following mechanisms does NOT result in variation in the gene frequencies from the ancestral population?

A)founder effect
B)differential reproduction
C)genetic equilibrium
D)genetic drift
E)natural selection

Question 49

Which type of natural selection increases the frequency of one extreme phenotype?

A)directional
B)diversifying
C)stabilizing
D)disruptive
E)nonrandom

Question 50

Disruptive selection is described in the text with the case of British land snails.In the grassy fields,the light-banded snails escape bird predators.In the darker forest,the dark snails survive and the light-banded snails are eaten.As long as the snails continue to cruise across the British landscape mating at the same season and having access to each other,why doesn't this "disruptive selection" eventually lead to two separate species?

A)There is no reproductive isolation to prevent gene flow.
B)They are already two separate species and the intermediate forms are hybrids.
C)The color forms are probably not genetically determined.
D)There must be some unknown factor producing an equal stabilizing selection "to hold the species together."
E)This will result in the formation of two species if given long enough time.

Question 51

If two adjacent populations of the same species show gene flow,then the two populations will

A)become more similar in their gene pools.
B)become isolated from each other.
C)develop into different species.
D)adapt to different conditions and become separate.
E)become the same single population.

Question 52

What is the correct order of the steps regarding speciation?

A)geographic isolation $\rightarrow$ one species $\rightarrow$ reproductive isolation $\rightarrow$ two species
B)two species $\rightarrow$ geographic isolation $\rightarrow$ one species $\rightarrow$ reproductive isolation
C)one species $\rightarrow$ geographic isolation $\rightarrow$ reproductive isolation $\rightarrow$ two species
D)reproductive isolation $\rightarrow$ one species $\rightarrow$ reproductive isolation $\rightarrow$ two species
E)reproductive isolation $\rightarrow$ two species $\rightarrow$ reproductive isolation $\rightarrow$ one species

Question 53

The observation by ________ that human reproductive potential would rapidly outstrip available food and living space was an important concept adopted by Darwin in formulating his theory of natural selection.

A)Stanley Miller
B)Graham Cairns-Smith
C)Thomas Malthus
D)Aleksandr Oparin
E)Sidney Fox

Question 54

According to the evolutionary theory,which statement is NOT true?

A)Evolution explains the unity of life.
B)Evolution explains the diversity of life.
C)All living things are NOT descended from a common ancestor.
D)Diversity occurs because various living things are adapted to different ways of life.
E)All living things share the same fundamental characteristics.

Question 55

Movement of alleles between populations such as by the migration of breeding individuals is called

A)mutations.
B)genetic drift.
C)gene flow.
D)nonrandom mating.
E)natural selection.

Question 56

Which of the following agents of evolutionary change results in adaptation?

A)mutation
B)genetic drift
C)gene flow
D)nonrandom mating
E)natural selection

Question 57

The organisms examined by Darwin on the Galápagos Islands that were most important in his development of the theory of natural selection were

A)rabbits and hares.
B)plants.
C)finches.
D)fish.
E)monkeys and armadillos.

Question 58

Which of the following is true about natural selection?

A)It acts on genotypes rather than phenotypes.
B)It assures the survival of each fit individual.
C)On average,it favors the survival of young with adaptive characteristics.
D)It always selects for more complex forms.
E)It always selects for forms that are a mutated variation.

Question 59

Which statement is NOT true about nonrandom mating?

A)Inbreeding is mating between relatives more often than by chance.
B)Inbreeding is a change in allele frequencies that increases the proportion of heterozygotes in the population.
C)An example is when a tall man marries a tall woman.
D)Nonrandom mating tends to cause subdivision into two phenotypic classes with reduced gene flow between them.
E)An example is when the strongest male wins the opportunity to mate with his choice of females.

Question 60

Which statement is NOT true about the maintenance of variation in a population?

A)Selection for adaptation to a particular environment ensures that the population will become stronger and more viable under any and all conditions.
B)Only phenotypes are acted on by selection,so heterozygotes serve as a reservoir of recessive alleles that may be adaptive in a different environment.
C)Heterozygote superiority may lead to selection for the heterozygote above either homozygote.
D)Variation is maintained through mutation,recombination,gene flow,and changed conditions.
E)Variations allow for the presence of conditions such as sickle-cell anemia.

Question 61

Which piece of evidence did Darwin observe during his 5-year journey aboard the HMS Beagle?

A)A South American species of finch is most likely the ancestor of the Galápagos Island finches.
B)Species do not change over time.
C)The environment can bring about inherited change in an individual.
D)All species share the same basic genetic and molecular makeup.
E)The earth is approximately 4.6 billion years old.

Question 62

During sympatric speciation

A)evolution ceases for a time.
B)wide phenotype differences disappear between subpopulations.
C)reproductive isolation between certain subpopulations occurs.
D)a geographic separation occurs between certain subpopulations.
E)mutations begin to appear,making the subpopulations distinctly different.

Question 63

An insect population lives along the edge of a north-south mountain range.The populations from the east and west slope eventually join in a low northern pass and interbreed,producing fertile offspring; but they do not circle around the southern edge because of a desert barrier.When glaciers move southward,the populations are pushed south of the northern pass and are isolated.While isolated,the two populations develop enough differences over time that when the glaciers retreat north and the insects again share the same pass,they no longer mate at the same time,nor can they produce fertile offspring.These insects

A)began as one species and therefore remain one species.
B)were originally two species and remain two species.
C)were originally two species but are now one species.
D)were originally one species but are now two species.
E)The number of species cannot be determined from the information given.

Question 64

The difference between phyletic gradualism and punctuated equilibrium is that

A)phyletic gradualism can only happen with eukaryotes and punctuated equilibrium happens with prokaryotes.
B)punctuated equilibrium shows speciation in a relatively short time,while phyletic gradualism shows speciation as changes accumulate over vast periods of time.
C)phyletic gradualism shows speciation in a relatively short time,while punctuated equilibrium shows speciation as changes accumulate over vast periods of time.
D)phyletic gradualism shows in the fossil record and punctuated equilibrium does not.
E)There is no difference between punctuated equilibrium and phyletic gradualism.

Question 65

Phylogeny refers to the

A)development of an organism.
B)evolutionary history of a species.
C)taxonomic hierarchies of cladistics.
D)reproductive isolation of species.
E)naming of organisms.

Question 66

In the case of Darwin's finches,an ancestral finch species from the mainland arrived on the Galápagos Islands and soon developed into many new species via adaptive radiation.The finches did NOT undergo adaptive radiation back on the mainland.What is the most plausible biological explanation?

A)Directional selection works better on islands.
B)Competition from many other bird species on the mainland provided stabilizing selection that was absent on the islands.
C)The environment on the mainland was completely uniform.
D)The founder effect greatly expanded the variation in alleles in the Galápagos finch gene pool.
E)The ancestral mainland finch was reproductively isolated.

Question 67

In a cladogram,clades are groups of related organisms.In the past,phylogeneticists built clades using the idea of parsimony,that the pattern that uses the fewest evolutionary changes is the most likely to be correct.Today,with the use of computers and DNA sequences,the explanation that is thought to be the best is

A)one that shows the most changes in nucleotide sequences.
B)one that eliminates any similar DNA sequences.
C)one that shows the DNA unique to that species.
D)one that shows the fewest changes in the nucleotide sequences.
E)still one that uses the same system of parsimony.

Question 68

The three-domain system is primarily based on

A)molecular data showing eukaryotes are much more closely related than previously thought.
B)structural data showing eukaryotes are far more diverse than previously thought.
C)molecular data showing prokaryotes are far more diverse than previously thought.
D)new biogeographical data showing prokaryotes are far more diverse than previously thought.
E)new classification concepts that have shown everything except molecular data to be irrelevant.

Question 69

What information is contained in the branches of a cladogram?

A)a current species and its descendents
B)a recent common ancestor and two outgroups
C)a recent common ancestor and all of its descendents
D)all of the potential ancestors of a group
E)all species classified in a particular genus

Question 70

Once a true cell was formed,biological evolution began.Biological evolution is all the changes that have occurred in living things since the beginning of life due to differential reproductive success.This means that

A)living things have been evolving toward the perfect form.
B)living things have begun reproducing.
C)living things have all evolved from a common ancestor.
D)life has recently begun to change through evolutionary processes.
E)life has evolved to become increasingly complex.

Question 71

Which of the following would NOT result in reproductive isolation?

A)Snakes found in one state are genetically identical to snakes found in a neighboring state with no geographic barriers separating them.
B)Fruit flies on one Hawaiian island live for hundreds of generations and do not come in contact with fruit flies on another island except when blown there by rare tropical storms.
C)One brood of the 17-year cicada emerged in 1987 (and will do so every 17 years)and lives a few months as adults; another brood emerged in 1992 (and will do so every 17 years); the larvae of both feed side by side on tree roots.
D)A lion and a tiger mate in the artificial confines of a zoo but the offspring is infertile.
E)Two populations of crickets are indistinguishable in physical features but the females in each group only come to the different songs of their males.

Question 72

Different species of female fireflies flash different patterns during mating season.This is an example of _________ isolation.

A)postzygotic isolation
B)temporal isolation
C)behavioral isolation
D)habitat isolation
E)mechanical isolation

Question 73

The model of speciation that requires some time with geographic barriers between two populations,allowing evolution of reproductive isolation,is

A)allopatric speciation.
B)phyletic gradualism.
C)sympatric speciation.
D)punctuated equilibrium.
E)prezygotic isolation.

Question 74

You are traveling across the Pacific Ocean when you come across a small island,island #1.There is lush vegetation and several species of beetles that vary in the color of their carapace.The colors you find are green,blue,purple,and black.A second island,200 miles closer to the mainland (island #2),is mostly sand with some palm trees and has a single species of beetle that has a brown carapace.You examine the colored beetles and discover that they are all related and that they are related to the brown species on the second island.Which of the following is the most likely scenario?

A)The brown beetle migrated to island #1 and gave rise to the colored species on island #2 through adaptive radiation.
B)The colored species of beetle on island #1 migrated to island #2 and gave rise to the brown beetle through extinction.
C)The brown beetle evolved from the colored beetles on island #1 and then migrated to island #2.
D)The brown beetle gave rise to all of the colored beetles on island #2 which then migrated to island #1.
E)A beetle of some undetermined color gave rise to the beetles that are brown,green,purple,and black and they then migrated to different islands.

Question 75

Phylogenetics uses evolutionary trees called cladograms to arrange species into clades,or related groups,showing all of the descendents of a common ancestor.The branches of the tree are based on all but which of the following?

A)shared derived characteristics
B)convergent evolution
C)homologous structures
D)morphological data
E)DNA sequences

Question 76

Gulls recognize their own species by the type of ring around the eye.This is an example of

A)geographical isolation.
B)ecological isolation.
C)behavioral isolation.
D)physiological isolation.
E)temporal isolation.

Question 77

According to the proposed three-domain system,

A)archaea and eukarya are more closely related than either is to the bacteria.
B)archaea and bacteria are more closely related than either is to the eukarya.
C)bacteria and eukarya are more closely related than either is to the archaea.
D)all three groups arose separately.
E)All three groups are equally related.

Question 78

During allopatric speciation

A)gene flow continues between subpopulations.
B)reproduction between all subpopulations is impossible.
C)a geographic separation occurs between subpopulations.
D)wide phenotype differences appear between subpopulations.
E)subpopulations are still able to interbreed.

Question 79

All living organisms share characteristics such as DNA,the molecule that passes information between generations; metabolic processes like glycolysis,and the ability to utilize specific energy sources.This is thought to be due to

A)biological evolution.
B)limited environmental stimuli.
C)the presence of transitional forms.
D)postzygotic isolation.
E)prezygotic isolation.

Question 80

The new model of evolution that proposes that organisms spend most of their time in fairly unchanging form and undergo occasional bursts of speciation is called

A)genetic drift.
B)phyletic gradualism.
C)sympatric speciation.
D)punctuated equilibrium.
E)the biological species concept.