Deck 18: Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance

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Question
The centromere is the structure that holds the chromatids together.
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Question
If a cell has 4 pairs of chromosomes, after mitosis each daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
Question
What is the structure that holds the chromatids together?

A) centromere
B) chromatin
C) chromosomes
D) karyotype
E) none of these
Question
In a karyotype, each chromosome contains two sister chromatids.
Question
How are G1 and G2 different?

A) The cell copies its DNA during G1 but not G2.
B) The cell does not grow during G1 but doubles its organelles in G2.
C) In G1, the cell prepares to synthesize its DNA and in G2, it synthesizes the proteins needed for cell division.
D) The cell spends much more time in G2 than in G1.
E) Mitosis occurs during G1 but not during G2.
Question
What is the term for the DNA and proteins found within the cell?

A) chromatin B. nucleus
C) karyotype
D) centromere
E) chromatids
F) none of these
Question
How are Jacobs and Klinefelter syndromes alike?

A) Both have only two X chromosomes.
B) Both have only two Y chromosomes.
C) Both have three sex chromosomes.
D) Both have one sex chromosome.
E) Both have only 45 chromosomes.
Question
Which cell could you not use to produce a karyotype?

A) white blood cells
B) red blood cells
C) epithelial cells
D) smooth muscle cells
E) skeletal muscle cells
Question
List the stages of mitosis and explain the key events during each of the stages.
Question
How are mitosis and cytokinesis alike?

A) Both involve the nucleus.
B) Both involve mitochondria.
C) Both involve division.
D) Both involve apoptosis.
E) Both involve DNA synthesis.
Question
In a karyotype it can be seen that a homologous pair of chromosomes will contain how many chromatids?

A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) six
Question
How many chromosome pairs does a human have?

A) 23
B) 25
C) 46
D) 50
E) 92
Question
From a karyotype, you could tell all of the following about the cell except whether

A) a fusion of two chromosomes had occurred.
B) a translocation had occurred between two chromosomes.
C) one chromosome was missing.
D) there were three copies of a chromosome present.
E) a particular gene contained a mutation.
Question
In a karyotype, the chromosomes are arranged in order from

A) largest to smallest, with the sex chromosomes at the end.
B) smallest to largest, with the sex chromosomes at the end.
C) largest to smallest, including the sex chromosomes.
D) smallest to largest, including the sex chromosomes.
E) sex chromosomes first and then smallest to the largest.
Question
How long does it take to proceed from prophase I to metaphase I in oogenesis?

A) One follows directly after the other.
B) There is usually a pause of about 1 hour.
C) It varies, but on the order of years.
D) There is a pause for a day.
E) There is a pause for about a month.
Question
How many of the chromosomes are considered autosomes?

A) 22 pairs
B) 22
C) 1 pair
D) 46
E) 23 pairs
Question
In which two phases of mitosis does the nuclear membrane appear or disappear?

A) prophase and metaphase
B) metaphase and anaphase
C) prophase and anaphase
D) anaphase and telophase
E) prophase and telophase
Question
Suppose that nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II in oogenesis, and each of the resulting 4 cells is fertilized with a normal sperm. How many cells are normal and how many have a chromosomal trisomy?

A) 1, 3
B) 2, 2
C) 3, 1
D) 2, 1
E) 1, 2
Question
List the stages of interphase and the events that occur during each of these stages.
Question
In what way is spermatogenesis similar to oogenesis?

A) Both occur continuously from puberty on.
B) Both result in 4 daughter cells.
C) Both result in cells with half the chromosome number.
D) Both are arrested in prophase I.
E) Both result in 1 or 2 polar bodies.
Question
Two sister chromatids are held together at the

A) centromere.
B) spindle.
C) aster.
D) telomere.
E) autosome.
Question
What structure is not divided during cytokinesis?

A) chromosomes
B) cell membrane
C) cell wall
D) cytoplasm
E) endoplasmic reticulum
Question
How do proto-oncogenes affect the cell cycle?

A) stimulate it
B) inhibit it
C) they do not affect the cell cycle
D) they cause it to temporarily pause and then rapidly accelerate
E) they rapidly accelerate it and then cause it to pause
Question
At which stage of mitosis do you first see the chromosomes appearing?

A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) cytokinesis
Question
Cytokinesis is the division of the ___________.

A) cytoplasm
B) nucleus
C) chromosomes
D) chromatin
E) zygote
Question
At what 2 checkpoints does the cell check for the integrity of the DNA?

A) G1 and G2
B) G1 and mitotic
C) G2 and mitotic
D) cytokinesis and G2
E) G1 and cytokinesis
Question
What happens at the G2 checkpoint?

A) The cell makes a commitment to divide.
B) The cell receives external signals to divide.
C) The cell checks that the DNA has replicated.
D) The cell makes sure the chromosomes are lined up correctly.
E) The cell enters G0.
Question
Which of the following is not a stage of interphase?

A) cytokinesis
B) G1
C) G2
D) S
Question
The amount of time the cell takes for interphase is approximately 1 hour, plus or minus about 5 minutes.
Question
When does a chromosome go from one chromatid to two sister chromatids?

A) during G1 of interphase
B) during S of interphase
C) during G2 of interphase
D) during mitosis
E) during cytokinesis
Question
Which stage comes directly after interphase?

A) mitosis
B) cytokinesis
C) G1
D) S
E) G2
Question
External signals such as hormones and growth factors can stimulate a cell to go through the cell cycle.
Question
When a child is born, mitosis ceases to function.
Question
Which of the following is part of the mitotic spindle?

A) sister chromatid
B) nucleolus
C) nuclear membrane
D) aster
E) centromere
Question
What structures are divided during cytokinesis?

A) cytoplasm and organelles
B) cytoplasm and chromosomes
C) cell membrane and chromatin
D) nucleus
E) none of these
Question
At what stage of mitosis do sister chromatids become chromosomes?

A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) cytokinesis
Question
At which stage of mitosis do the chromsomes look like the letter "V"?

A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) cytokinesis
Question
What are the two parts of the cell cycle?

A) apoptosis and interphase
B) mitosis and cytokinesis
C) nucleus and cytoplasm
D) mitosis and meiosis
E) interphase and cell division
Question
Following mitosis, the daughter cells are identical to the parent cell.
Question
Which of the following is not a stage of mitosis?

A) interphase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase
E) telophase
Question
If an organism does not undergo meiosis, then it cannot undergo sexual reproduction.
Question
During which phase of meiosis will the homologous chromosomes pair up?

A) prophase I
B) prophase II
C) anaphase I
D) telophase II
E) metaphase I
Question
In what stage of meiosis does synapsis occur?

A) prophase I
B) prophase II
C) metaphase I
D) metaphase II
E) anaphase I
Question
When do the centromeres divide in meiosis?

A) prophase I
B) prophase II
C) anaphase I
D) anaphase II
E) telophase I
Question
If the parent cell has 24 chromosomes, and each of the daughter cells has 24 chromosomes, then the cell has undergone

A) mitosis.
B) meiosis I.
C) meiosis II.
D) G1
E) none of these
Question
If there are 4 pairs of chromosomes, how many different combinations of chromosomes are possible?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
Question
Genetic variation is useful to evolution because environments change.
Question
If you are looking at a cell in which 2n = 16, and there appear to be 8 structures lined up at the metaphase plate, then you are looking at

A) mitosis.
B) meiosis.
C) interphase.
D) G2.
E) G1.
Question
If an organism has 4 pairs of chromosomes, after meiosis it will contain how many chromosomes?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
Question
Sexual reproduction introduces more genetic variation than does asexual reproduction.
Question
Which aspect of the cytoskeleton is involved in the cleavage furrow?

A) microtubules
B) intermediate filaments
C) actin filaments
D) centrioles
E) spindle fibers
Question
How many cells are produced as the result of meiosis and mitosis?

A) 4, 2
B) 2, 2
C) 2, 4
D) 4, 4
E) it varies each time the cells go through meiosis and mitosis
Question
Which phase of meiosis matches those of mitosis in regards to the events occurring in the cell?

A) anaphase II and anaphase
B) anaphase I and prophase
C) metaphase I and prophase
D) telophase II and telophase
E) none of the phases of meiosis will match up with mitosis
Question
List the stages of meiosis I and explain the events that occur during each stage.
Question
In meiosis there are how many divisions and how many daughter cells?

A) 1, 2
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 2
D) 2, 4
E) 2, 8
Question
Which division of meiosis is like mitosis?

A) meiosis I
B) meiosis II
C) G1
D) S
E) G2
Question
In both spermatogenesis and oogenesis, one sperm/egg forms from one primary spermatocyte/oocyte.
Question
In which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate from each other?

A) metaphase I
B) metaphase II
C) anaphase I
D) anaphase II
E) interkinesis
Question
Independent alignment creates genetic variation. This is associated with which stage of meiosis?

A) prophase I
B) metaphase I
C) prophase II
D) metaphase II
E) anaphase II
Question
There is no mechanism to ensure the exact partitioning of the cytoplasm as there is of the DNA.
Question
All the products of oogenesis are equal in size and content.
Question
Which of the following is not a symptom of Down syndrome?

A) short stature
B) eyelid fold
C) flat face
D) stubby fingers
E) indeterminate genitalia
Question
If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II, how many of the final 4 products will be abnormal?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 0
D) 1
E) 3
Question
The product(s) of meiosis I in spermatogenesis is/are

A) primary spermatocytes.
B) secondary spermatocytes.
C) spermatids.
D) spermatazoa.
E) 2 identical cells.
Question
Which type of change in chromosome structure characterizes cri du chat syndrome?

A) deletion
B) duplication
C) translocation
D) inversion
E) trisomy
Question
Which of the following syndromes has a karyotype with a missing X chromosome?

A) Turner syndrome
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) Jacobs syndrome
D) Down syndrome
E) Williams syndrome
Question
What is the genetic makeup of an individual who has inherited Jacobs syndrome?

A) XYY
B) XXX
C) XXY
D) XO
E) none of these
Question
Trisomy of which pair of chromosomes has the greatest chance of survival?

A) XX
B) pair 13
C) pair 8
D) pair 3
E) pair 15
Question
Which chromosomal mutation will cause Williams syndrome?

A) deletion
B) duplication
C) inversion
D) translocation
E) trisomy
Question
If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis I, how many of the final 4 products will be abnormal?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 3
E) none
Question
If the secondary oocyte is not fertilized, it does not complete meiosis II.
Question
In a translocation, all of the DNA is present, and there is only one copy of each piece.
Question
Which of the following is associated with mental retardation in Down syndrome?

A) elevated levels of purines in the blood
B) increased tendency toward leukemia
C) increased tendency toward cataracts
D) accelerated rate of aging
E) thickening of the muscles of the tongue
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Deck 18: Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance
1
The centromere is the structure that holds the chromatids together.
True
2
If a cell has 4 pairs of chromosomes, after mitosis each daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
C
3
What is the structure that holds the chromatids together?

A) centromere
B) chromatin
C) chromosomes
D) karyotype
E) none of these
A
4
In a karyotype, each chromosome contains two sister chromatids.
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5
How are G1 and G2 different?

A) The cell copies its DNA during G1 but not G2.
B) The cell does not grow during G1 but doubles its organelles in G2.
C) In G1, the cell prepares to synthesize its DNA and in G2, it synthesizes the proteins needed for cell division.
D) The cell spends much more time in G2 than in G1.
E) Mitosis occurs during G1 but not during G2.
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6
What is the term for the DNA and proteins found within the cell?

A) chromatin B. nucleus
C) karyotype
D) centromere
E) chromatids
F) none of these
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7
How are Jacobs and Klinefelter syndromes alike?

A) Both have only two X chromosomes.
B) Both have only two Y chromosomes.
C) Both have three sex chromosomes.
D) Both have one sex chromosome.
E) Both have only 45 chromosomes.
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Unlock for access to all 73 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
8
Which cell could you not use to produce a karyotype?

A) white blood cells
B) red blood cells
C) epithelial cells
D) smooth muscle cells
E) skeletal muscle cells
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9
List the stages of mitosis and explain the key events during each of the stages.
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10
How are mitosis and cytokinesis alike?

A) Both involve the nucleus.
B) Both involve mitochondria.
C) Both involve division.
D) Both involve apoptosis.
E) Both involve DNA synthesis.
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11
In a karyotype it can be seen that a homologous pair of chromosomes will contain how many chromatids?

A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) six
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12
How many chromosome pairs does a human have?

A) 23
B) 25
C) 46
D) 50
E) 92
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
13
From a karyotype, you could tell all of the following about the cell except whether

A) a fusion of two chromosomes had occurred.
B) a translocation had occurred between two chromosomes.
C) one chromosome was missing.
D) there were three copies of a chromosome present.
E) a particular gene contained a mutation.
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Unlock for access to all 73 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
14
In a karyotype, the chromosomes are arranged in order from

A) largest to smallest, with the sex chromosomes at the end.
B) smallest to largest, with the sex chromosomes at the end.
C) largest to smallest, including the sex chromosomes.
D) smallest to largest, including the sex chromosomes.
E) sex chromosomes first and then smallest to the largest.
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k this deck
15
How long does it take to proceed from prophase I to metaphase I in oogenesis?

A) One follows directly after the other.
B) There is usually a pause of about 1 hour.
C) It varies, but on the order of years.
D) There is a pause for a day.
E) There is a pause for about a month.
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16
How many of the chromosomes are considered autosomes?

A) 22 pairs
B) 22
C) 1 pair
D) 46
E) 23 pairs
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17
In which two phases of mitosis does the nuclear membrane appear or disappear?

A) prophase and metaphase
B) metaphase and anaphase
C) prophase and anaphase
D) anaphase and telophase
E) prophase and telophase
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18
Suppose that nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II in oogenesis, and each of the resulting 4 cells is fertilized with a normal sperm. How many cells are normal and how many have a chromosomal trisomy?

A) 1, 3
B) 2, 2
C) 3, 1
D) 2, 1
E) 1, 2
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19
List the stages of interphase and the events that occur during each of these stages.
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20
In what way is spermatogenesis similar to oogenesis?

A) Both occur continuously from puberty on.
B) Both result in 4 daughter cells.
C) Both result in cells with half the chromosome number.
D) Both are arrested in prophase I.
E) Both result in 1 or 2 polar bodies.
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21
Two sister chromatids are held together at the

A) centromere.
B) spindle.
C) aster.
D) telomere.
E) autosome.
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22
What structure is not divided during cytokinesis?

A) chromosomes
B) cell membrane
C) cell wall
D) cytoplasm
E) endoplasmic reticulum
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23
How do proto-oncogenes affect the cell cycle?

A) stimulate it
B) inhibit it
C) they do not affect the cell cycle
D) they cause it to temporarily pause and then rapidly accelerate
E) they rapidly accelerate it and then cause it to pause
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24
At which stage of mitosis do you first see the chromosomes appearing?

A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) cytokinesis
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25
Cytokinesis is the division of the ___________.

A) cytoplasm
B) nucleus
C) chromosomes
D) chromatin
E) zygote
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26
At what 2 checkpoints does the cell check for the integrity of the DNA?

A) G1 and G2
B) G1 and mitotic
C) G2 and mitotic
D) cytokinesis and G2
E) G1 and cytokinesis
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27
What happens at the G2 checkpoint?

A) The cell makes a commitment to divide.
B) The cell receives external signals to divide.
C) The cell checks that the DNA has replicated.
D) The cell makes sure the chromosomes are lined up correctly.
E) The cell enters G0.
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28
Which of the following is not a stage of interphase?

A) cytokinesis
B) G1
C) G2
D) S
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29
The amount of time the cell takes for interphase is approximately 1 hour, plus or minus about 5 minutes.
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30
When does a chromosome go from one chromatid to two sister chromatids?

A) during G1 of interphase
B) during S of interphase
C) during G2 of interphase
D) during mitosis
E) during cytokinesis
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31
Which stage comes directly after interphase?

A) mitosis
B) cytokinesis
C) G1
D) S
E) G2
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32
External signals such as hormones and growth factors can stimulate a cell to go through the cell cycle.
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33
When a child is born, mitosis ceases to function.
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34
Which of the following is part of the mitotic spindle?

A) sister chromatid
B) nucleolus
C) nuclear membrane
D) aster
E) centromere
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35
What structures are divided during cytokinesis?

A) cytoplasm and organelles
B) cytoplasm and chromosomes
C) cell membrane and chromatin
D) nucleus
E) none of these
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36
At what stage of mitosis do sister chromatids become chromosomes?

A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) cytokinesis
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37
At which stage of mitosis do the chromsomes look like the letter "V"?

A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) cytokinesis
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38
What are the two parts of the cell cycle?

A) apoptosis and interphase
B) mitosis and cytokinesis
C) nucleus and cytoplasm
D) mitosis and meiosis
E) interphase and cell division
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39
Following mitosis, the daughter cells are identical to the parent cell.
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40
Which of the following is not a stage of mitosis?

A) interphase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase
E) telophase
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41
If an organism does not undergo meiosis, then it cannot undergo sexual reproduction.
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42
During which phase of meiosis will the homologous chromosomes pair up?

A) prophase I
B) prophase II
C) anaphase I
D) telophase II
E) metaphase I
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43
In what stage of meiosis does synapsis occur?

A) prophase I
B) prophase II
C) metaphase I
D) metaphase II
E) anaphase I
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44
When do the centromeres divide in meiosis?

A) prophase I
B) prophase II
C) anaphase I
D) anaphase II
E) telophase I
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45
If the parent cell has 24 chromosomes, and each of the daughter cells has 24 chromosomes, then the cell has undergone

A) mitosis.
B) meiosis I.
C) meiosis II.
D) G1
E) none of these
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46
If there are 4 pairs of chromosomes, how many different combinations of chromosomes are possible?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
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47
Genetic variation is useful to evolution because environments change.
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48
If you are looking at a cell in which 2n = 16, and there appear to be 8 structures lined up at the metaphase plate, then you are looking at

A) mitosis.
B) meiosis.
C) interphase.
D) G2.
E) G1.
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49
If an organism has 4 pairs of chromosomes, after meiosis it will contain how many chromosomes?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
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50
Sexual reproduction introduces more genetic variation than does asexual reproduction.
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51
Which aspect of the cytoskeleton is involved in the cleavage furrow?

A) microtubules
B) intermediate filaments
C) actin filaments
D) centrioles
E) spindle fibers
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k this deck
52
How many cells are produced as the result of meiosis and mitosis?

A) 4, 2
B) 2, 2
C) 2, 4
D) 4, 4
E) it varies each time the cells go through meiosis and mitosis
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53
Which phase of meiosis matches those of mitosis in regards to the events occurring in the cell?

A) anaphase II and anaphase
B) anaphase I and prophase
C) metaphase I and prophase
D) telophase II and telophase
E) none of the phases of meiosis will match up with mitosis
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54
List the stages of meiosis I and explain the events that occur during each stage.
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55
In meiosis there are how many divisions and how many daughter cells?

A) 1, 2
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 2
D) 2, 4
E) 2, 8
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56
Which division of meiosis is like mitosis?

A) meiosis I
B) meiosis II
C) G1
D) S
E) G2
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57
In both spermatogenesis and oogenesis, one sperm/egg forms from one primary spermatocyte/oocyte.
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58
In which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate from each other?

A) metaphase I
B) metaphase II
C) anaphase I
D) anaphase II
E) interkinesis
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59
Independent alignment creates genetic variation. This is associated with which stage of meiosis?

A) prophase I
B) metaphase I
C) prophase II
D) metaphase II
E) anaphase II
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60
There is no mechanism to ensure the exact partitioning of the cytoplasm as there is of the DNA.
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61
All the products of oogenesis are equal in size and content.
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62
Which of the following is not a symptom of Down syndrome?

A) short stature
B) eyelid fold
C) flat face
D) stubby fingers
E) indeterminate genitalia
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63
If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II, how many of the final 4 products will be abnormal?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 0
D) 1
E) 3
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64
The product(s) of meiosis I in spermatogenesis is/are

A) primary spermatocytes.
B) secondary spermatocytes.
C) spermatids.
D) spermatazoa.
E) 2 identical cells.
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65
Which type of change in chromosome structure characterizes cri du chat syndrome?

A) deletion
B) duplication
C) translocation
D) inversion
E) trisomy
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66
Which of the following syndromes has a karyotype with a missing X chromosome?

A) Turner syndrome
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) Jacobs syndrome
D) Down syndrome
E) Williams syndrome
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67
What is the genetic makeup of an individual who has inherited Jacobs syndrome?

A) XYY
B) XXX
C) XXY
D) XO
E) none of these
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68
Trisomy of which pair of chromosomes has the greatest chance of survival?

A) XX
B) pair 13
C) pair 8
D) pair 3
E) pair 15
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69
Which chromosomal mutation will cause Williams syndrome?

A) deletion
B) duplication
C) inversion
D) translocation
E) trisomy
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70
If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis I, how many of the final 4 products will be abnormal?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 3
E) none
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71
If the secondary oocyte is not fertilized, it does not complete meiosis II.
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72
In a translocation, all of the DNA is present, and there is only one copy of each piece.
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73
Which of the following is associated with mental retardation in Down syndrome?

A) elevated levels of purines in the blood
B) increased tendency toward leukemia
C) increased tendency toward cataracts
D) accelerated rate of aging
E) thickening of the muscles of the tongue
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