Deck 3: Causal Factors and Viewpoints

Question 1

In the diathesis-stress model, a stressor is ________

A) a distal, sufficient cause of a mental disorder.
B) a necessary or contributory cause that is distal from the onset of symptoms.
C) a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms.
D) a biological vulnerability.

Answer 1

a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms.

Question 2

Ryan, age 8, was cut from the school soccer team. After the initial disappointment, he became a boy scout, which he really enjoyed. Now as an adult, when he did not get into graduate school, rather than become depressed, Ryan found a job in his field that he enjoys, and plans to try again later. This is an example of ________

A) a necessary and sufficient cause.
B) the diathesis-stress theory.
C) the interactive model of the diathesis-stress theory.
D) the steeling or inoculation effect of some stressful experiences.

Answer 2

the steeling or inoculation effect of some stressful experiences.

Question 3

Karen was sexually abused by her father at the age of 5. She developed a severe separation anxiety reaction whenever her mother tried to leave. As an adult, Karen developed a dissociative disorder due to the same abuse. This is an example of how the same factor, in this case abuse, can be ________

A) both a sufficient and a necessary cause.
B) both a reinforcing contributory cause and a punishing contributory cause.
C) both a primary and a secondary process.
D) both a proximal and a distal causal factor.

Answer 3

both a proximal and a distal causal factor.

Question 4

A diathesis can best be described as a ________

A) proximal necessary cause.
B) sufficient cause.
C) contributory cause.
D) proximal causal factor.

Question 5

Suppose that low self-esteem is a diathesis for developing depression later in life. This means that ________

A) people who currently are depressed will have low self-esteem.
B) low self-esteem is a proximal trigger for depression.
C) people with low self-esteem have a predisposition for developing depression.
D) the psychological processes associated with low self-esteem will always trigger depression.

Question 6

A couple is in counseling. She states that she drinks because he rejects her. He states that he rejects her because she drinks. It appears that in this example of bidirectionality

A) the drinking is probably the actual predisposing cause for the problems in this marriage.
B) the rejection is probably the actual predisposing cause for the problems in this marriage.
C) the drinking and rejection influence and maintain each other.
D) the drinking and rejection are caused by another third variable unknown to the couple.

Question 7

Childhood abuse is commonly seen in those who develop dissociative disorders later in life. Childhood abuse would best be described as a ________

A) necessary contributory cause.
B) proximal contributory cause.
C) reinforcing contributory cause.
D) distal contributory cause.

Question 8

A predisposition toward developing a disorder ________

A) necessarily is biological.
B) is called a diathesis.
C) increases the likelihood of developing any given disorder by 50 percent.
D) necessarily is a psycho-social stressor.

Question 9

The loss of a parent may be ________

A) a stressor.
B) a diathesis.
C) a diathesis and/or a stressor.
D) Neither a diathesis nor a stressor.

Question 10

If having a gene for Parkinson's disease guarantees that Parkinson's disease will develop, the presence of the gene can be described as a ________

A) risk factor.
B) necessary cause.
C) sufficient cause.
D) contributory cause.

Question 11

In order to develop chicken pox, one must be exposed to the virus that causes chicken pox. Note, however, that not everyone who is exposed to the virus is affected. In other words, the virus is a ________

A) risk factor.
B) necessary cause.
C) sufficient cause.
D) contributory cause.

Question 12

According to the text, which of the following has not been identified as a potential protective factor?

A) Exposure to moderate stressors
B) High intelligence
C) An introverted personality
D) A warm and supportive parent

Question 13

While having a gene for Parkinson's disease guarantees that Parkinson's disease will develop, this is not the only factor that can lead to Parkinson's disease. In other words, the presence of the gene is a ________, but not a ________.

A) risk factor; sufficient cause
B) sufficient cause; necessary cause
C) necessary cause; risk factor
D) contributory cause; sufficient cause

Question 14

Dr. Fox studies the causes of depression. In other words, she looks at factors that play a role in the ________ of depression.

A) etiology
B) epidemiology
C) prevalence
D) resiliency

Question 15

In the diathesis-stress model, a diathesis is a ________

A) distal necessary or contributory cause of a mental disorder.
B) sufficient cause that is distal from the onset of symptoms.
C) necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms.
D) biological vulnerability that virtually guarantees the development of the disorder.

Question 16

Suppose that the presence of a particular gene is a necessary cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia. Which of the following statements would be true?

A) The gene is also a sufficient cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia.
B) There are other things besides this gene that can cause schizophrenia.
C) Most people with schizophrenia will have that gene.
D) A person with that gene may or may not become schizophrenic.

Question 17

A protective factor is ________

A) an influence that modifies a person's response to environmental stressors.
B) an influence that modifies a person's response to genetic problems.
C) a distal causal factor for a mental disorder.
D) a biological makeup that makes people more resistant to stress.

Question 18

The additive model of the diathesis stress theory proposes that ________

A) people with a very high level of a diathesis may need a very large amount of stress to develop the disorder.
B) people with a very high level of a diathesis may need only a small amount of stress to develop the disorder.
C) someone with no diathesis will never develop the disorder.
D) someone with no genes for the disorder will never develop the disorder.

Question 19

Understanding the causes of mental disorders is important because ________

A) effective treatment is not possible without such an understanding.
B) classification of disorders cannot be done without such information.
C) such knowledge might make both the prevention and cure of mental disorders possible.
D) disagreements about the causes of psychopathology have long limited the advancements made in the study of abnormal psychology.

Question 20

Etiology is ________

A) a condition that tends to maintain maladaptive behavior.
B) the causal pattern of a disorder.
C) a predisposition toward developing a disorder.
D) a condition that makes it less likely a person will experience the negative consequences of stress.

Question 21

Norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin, and GABA are all ________

A) hormones that affect behavior.
B) catecholamines that inhibit nerve impulses.
C) neurotransmitters that are involved in psychopathology.
D) forms of neurotransmitters called amino acids that can cause brain damage.

Question 22

What do genes consist of?

A) Trisomes
B) Chromosomes
C) DNA
D) Proteins

Question 23

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Most behavioral disorders are determined exclusively by genes.
B) Genes play a role in most mental disorders.
C) Genes do not affect biochemical processes.
D) The genes that will be expressed in an individual are not affected by experience.

Question 24

Cortisol is a hormone that ________

A) is released by the hypothalamus and travels to the pituitary gland, causing it to respond.
B) the pituitary gland releases to stimulate the adrenal gland.
C) the adrenal gland produces that mobilizes the body to deal with stress.
D) reduces the reuptake of the monamine neurotransmitters.

Question 25

Which of the following is an example of the phenomena that the term resilience has been used to describe?

A) Julie dreams of becoming a successful lawyer but never finished college.
B) After failing French the first time, Carl did not earn a passing grade when he took the course for a second time.
C) After his father died, Julio had a hard time maintaining responsibilities at work.
D) Following the events of September 11, the children of PS100 in New York City were able to resume their studies and finish the school year without incident.

Question 26

What is the primary focus of the field of developmental psychopathology?

A) Understanding how critical incidents in childhood affect people as adults.
B) To understand what is within the range of normal development so as to have a better understanding of what is abnormal.
C) To discover and improve the environmental factors that can contribute to a child later developing a mental illness.
D) Understanding how disorders develop over time.

Question 27

Reuptake of neurotransmitters is the process by which neurotransmitters ________

A) are repeatedly released into the synapse.
B) are reabsorbed by the axon.
C) stimulate the post-synaptic neuron to fire.
D) are connected to hormones.

Question 28

Which of the following most accurately describes the notion of different viewpoints of abnormal behavior?

A) Each viewpoint accurately describes the causes and symptoms of two or three different disorders.
B) Each viewpoint offers its own explanation of abnormal behavior.
C) All viewpoints are equally valid.
D) Only the biological viewpoint has been studied experimentally.

Question 29

The site of communication between two neurons is the ________

A) synapse.
B) neurotransmitter.
C) nucleus.
D) vesicle.

Question 30

The disorders first recognized as having biological bases are best characterized as disorders that ________

A) involved significant damage to brain tissue.
B) were characterized by neurochemical imbalances.
C) did not cause neurological damage.
D) resulted from contact with other animal species.

Question 31

Which statement about neural communication is accurate?

A) All neurotransmitters increase the likelihood that the postsynaptic neuron will transmit a message.
B) The reason neural messages are transmitted from cell to cell is because they physically touch each other.
C) The part of the neuron that receives messages is called the synapse.
D) Neurotransmitters released into the synapse determine whether messages are sent from one neuron to another.

Question 32

When psychologists say that a person shows resilience, it means ________

A) the person has not been faced with significant stressors.
B) that regardless of the stresses the person faces, he or she will feel no emotional distress.
C) the person can successfully adapt and survive in threatening circumstances.
D) recovering from traumatic events without the need for psychological protective factors.

Question 33

Normal human cells have ________

A) twenty-two chromosome pairs and one pair of sex chromosomes.
B) twenty-one trisomy chromosome pairs, one autosomal pair and one pair of sex chromosomes.
C) twenty-one chromosome pairs and two trisomy chromosome pairs.
D) twenty-three chromosome pairs.

Question 34

Neurotransmitters released into the synapse may be reuptaken into the axon endings from which they originated. One name for this process is ________

A) retracing.
B) deactivation.
C) recapture.
D) inhibitory transmission.

Question 35

Which of the following is true?

A) Most mental disorders are caused only by psychological factors.
B) Most mental disorders have a simple biological explanation.
C) Most mental disorders are caused by neurological damage.
D) Most mental disorders are not caused by neurological damage.

Question 36

Down syndrome has been linked to ________

A) a chemical imbalance.
B) a gene on the X chromosome.
C) possessing an extra X chromosome.
D) possessing an extra chromosome in chromosome 21.

Question 37

Resilient children ________

A) show resilience in all domains.
B) may still experience emotional distress.
C) usually have survived chronic maltreatment.
D) are increasingly rare.

Question 38

Suppose the reuptake of a specific neurotransmitter were deficient and the deactivation enzymes associated with the neurotransmitter were also deficient. What effect would this have?

A) There would be more of the neurotransmitter in the synapse.
B) There would be less of the neurotransmitter in the synapse.
C) Since the two deficiencies would balance each other out, there would be no change in the levels of the neurotransmitter.
D) The neurons would become especially sensitive to the neurotransmitter.

Question 39

Dr. Simon, a psychiatrist, takes a biopsychosocial viewpoint of psychopathology. Which of the following treatments is he most likely to suggest for Julia's current state of depression?

A) Intense psychotherapy
B) A prolonged vacation
C) A combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs
D) Family therapy and a change in her work environment

Question 40

When examining heredity, mental disorders are almost always ________

A) influenced by one particular gene.
B) influenced by multiple genes.
C) influenced by recessive genes.
D) not influenced by genes.

Question 41

Todd and his siblings have parents who are physically abusive to each other. When they fight, they expect Todd to stay quiet and keep the other children under control. They allow the other children to cry and hide, but Todd must stay in the room with them and referee. This is an example of ________

A) a genotype-environment correlation.
B) a shared environmental influence.
C) a nonshared environmental influence.
D) a protective factor.

Question 42

Tracy and Shahid are both 3 months old. Tracy is highly active, easily irritated, and cries easily. Shahid is quiet, adapts easily to change, and seems fearless. These differences illustrate ________

A) the impact of shared environmental influences.
B) how physical handicaps can have a genetic origin.
C) differences in temperament.
D) the fact that personality is more influenced by the environment than by genetics.

Question 43

Highly coordinated children are picked out at an early age by coaches and given special opportunities to excel at sports. Extraverted children seek out social situations and become unusually comfortable with strangers. Both of these phenomena illustrate ________

A) the power of the phenotype over the genotype.
B) genotype-environment correlations.
C) the polygenic effect of chromosomes on behavior.
D) how the environment shapes one's genetic endowment.

Question 44

George and Logan are brothers. They live in a small apartment in the city with some other relatives. Their family is extremely poor. Their father is hardest on George, the eldest, and sometimes physically abuses him. Which environmental factor is likely to be more important in the later adjustment of George and Logan?

A) Their poverty.
B) The overcrowding of their living situation.
C) The physical abuse.
D) The fact that they live with other family members.

Question 45

If a trait is highly heritable, it would be expected that the concordance rate for ________

A) dizygotic twins and monozygotic twins would be comparable.
B) dizygotic twins would be greater than the concordance rate for monozygotic twins.
C) monozygotic twins would be greater than the concordance rate for dizygotic twins.
D) dizygotic twins would be close to 100 percent.

Question 46

If fraternal (or dizygotic) twins are more likely to be concordant for a trait than other siblings, can it be concluded that the higher concordance rate is due to the greater degree of genetic relatedness?

A) Yes.
B) Yes, but only if the siblings studied are of the same sex and age.
C) No, because the greater similarity can be attributed to environmental influence.
D) No, because fraternal twins are no more genetically alike than other siblings.

Question 47

Which of the following is an example of a nonshared environmental influence?

A) Family economic status
B) Divorce
C) Death of a parent
D) Sibling rivalry

Question 48

Genes ________

A) determine how a person will behave.
B) cause people to develop mental disorders.
C) determine what characteristics a person will have.
D) determine the range of characteristics a person has.

Question 49

Which of the following is not a common method for studying genetic influences?

A) The study of specific gene defects
B) Twin studies
C) Adoption studies
D) Family history (pedigree) studies

Question 50

Ian was predisposed to being very aggressive with his peers in school, who responded by rejecting him. Later in life, Ian began to associate with other aggressive youth and to participate in a variety of delinquent behaviors. This is an example of ________

A) phenotypic vulnerability to aggression.
B) a phenotypic diathesis.
C) polygenic expression.
D) the way the genotype may shape the phenotype.

Question 51

The genetic influences that determine behavior may never be fully understood due to ________

A) the ease of research to differentiate between the effects of the environment and the effects of genes.
B) the likelihood that most behaviors are determined by the interaction of many genes and the environment.
C) the tendency to rely upon twin studies in genetic research.
D) our significant understanding of how genes impact brain chemistry.

Question 52

Why is it particularly useful to study identical twins who were raised in different environments?

A) Differences in brain function can easily be identified.
B) Concordance rates tend to be higher.
C) It is possible that the genetics of twins who have been separated have changed in ways to explain any differences found.
D) It is possible that high concordance rates between identical twins reared together is due to their being treated more similarly than nonidentical twins.

Question 53

Which of the following is a misconception about genetics and behavior?

A) The influence of genetics on behavior disappears as we get older.
B) Just because a disorder runs in families does not mean genetics are the reason.
C) Genetic research strategies provide useful tests of the influence of the environment on behavior.
D) Genetics influence behavior by making the person more or less susceptible to environmental influences.

Question 54

Attractive babies and unattractive babies tend to be treated differently. In other words, an infant's physical phenotype may alter how others respond to him or her. What type of genotype-environment correlation is this an example of?

A) Active
B) Evocative
C) Passive
D) Persuasive

Question 55

Andrea and her parents are shy and quiet. Her parents never take Andrea to any activities where there are many people. They buy her books and crafts that she can do by herself. This shows ________

A) an evocative effect of genotype on environment.
B) a passive effect of genotype on environment.
C) an active effect of genotype on environment.
D) a lack of genotype-environment correlation.

Question 56

Which of the following strives to describe the location of genes responsible for mental disorders?

A) Association studies
B) Family histories
C) Twin studies
D) Adoption studies

Question 57

Mental disorders are almost always ________, meaning they are influenced by multiple genes.

A) environmental
B) chemical circuits
C) polygenic
D) probands

Question 58

Suppose that, using linkage analysis, a researcher finds that family members with a high likelihood of developing depression also are very likely to be of below average height. This would mean ________

A) being short is a contributory factor for depression.
B) the gene for depression is probably located near the gene for height.
C) height and depression are probably caused by the same gene.
D) having depression causes people not to grow as tall as they would if they didn't have depression.

Question 59

Which method for studying genetic influences fails to control for the possible effect of sharing a common environment?

A) Family history or pedigree method
B) Adoption method
C) Association studies
D) Linkage analysis

Question 60

A child consistently identified as behaviorally inhibited is most likely to ________

A) be an outgoing adult.
B) develop conduct disorder.
C) be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder in adulthood.
D) have been born prematurely.

Question 61

Which of the following psychodynamic elements of the personality can be described as impulsive and selfish?

A) Ego
B) Id
C) Superego
D) Ideal self

Question 62

In psychoanalytic theory, which psychosexual stage centers on castration anxiety?

A) Genital
B) Oral
C) Anal
D) Phallic

Question 63

Which perspective or viewpoint focuses on intrapsychic conflicts as the cause of psychopathology?

A) Biological
B) Behavioral
C) Psychodynamic
D) Sociocultural

Question 64

One of Freud's major contributions to current perspectives of mental disorders is ________

A) the concept of the Oedipal complex.
B) the concept of the unconscious and how it can affect behavior.
C) the concept of the Electra complex.
D) the understanding of the three structures of personality.

Question 65

John Bowlby's attachment theory emphasized ________

A) the social environment in forming attachments.
B) the quality of parental care in forming attachments.
C) the quality of early reinforcers and stimulation in forming attachments.
D) the necessity of independence from parental figures in forming attachments.

Question 66

Neural plasticity is ________

A) the process by which neurotransmitters are broken down in the brain.
B) the flexibility of the brain-existing neural circuits can change or new ones can be made.
C) strong evidence of brain damage, leading to the development of a mental disorder.
D) the best indicator of temperament and its effect on the personality development of a child.

Question 67

The humanistic perspective focuses primarily upon the capacity of the individual to ________

A) confront the dilemma of our deaths.
B) be driven by unconscious motives.
C) rationally explain our behavior.
D) engage in positive self-growth.

Question 68

Which of the following did Freud believe played a causal role in the development of most forms of psychopathology?

A) Anxiety
B) Depression
C) Unresolved conflicts between the ego and the superego
D) Fixation in the oral stage

Question 69

Biological discoveries ________

A) have lessened the subjectivity of definitions of abnormal.
B) demonstrate that the environment plays only a minimal role in the development of psychopathology.
C) make it clear that mental disorders are diseases and should be dealt with by the medical profession.
D) have led to a recognition of the role that genetic factors and other biological influences play in the development of many disorders.

Question 70

One important contribution of Freud's theory was that ________

A) he truly understood the role of women in society.
B) he heavily utilized experimental evidence to support his theories.
C) he applied the same principles to normal and abnormal behavior.
D) he increased the focus on positive growth for individuals.

Question 71

Defense mechanisms ________

A) make a person feel more anxious and have more problems, because they begin to act defensively.
B) are strategies the id uses to try to achieve what it desires.
C) are conscious, intentional attempts to cope in an effective way with an anxiety producing event.
D) help a person feel less anxious, but because they usually work by distorting reality, they are not always adaptive.

Question 72

According to Freud, a person who does not appropriately resolve each psychosexual stage would be ___________ at that stage.

A) defended
B) fixated
C) repressed
D) displaced

Question 73

After cheating on her husband and feeling ashamed, Julia accused her husband of cheating. Such behavior is explained by which of the following defense mechanism?

A) Sublimation
B) Displacement
C) Projection
D) Rationalization

Question 74

The interpersonal perspective ________

A) arose as a reaction against the unscientific methods of psychoanalysis.
B) was introduced by Erik Erikson.
C) emphasizes social rather than inner determinants of behavior.
D) is the most influential humanistic perspective today.

Question 75

Which period of psychosexual development occurs when a child becomes preoccupied with the development of skills and activities?

A) Genital
B) Phallic
C) Latency
D) Pubertal

Question 76

Newer psychodynamic perspectives ________

A) disregard most elements of Freud's theories.
B) emphasize the role of the id.
C) do not view the libido as a primary determinant of behavior.
D) recognize intrapsychic conflicts as a primary determinant of behavior.

Question 77

Finding meaning in life and dealing with death form core values in which of the following perspectives?

A) Existential
B) Humanistic
C) Behavioral
D) Object-relations

Question 78

Which of the following perspectives focused upon social determinants of behavior?

A) The attachment perspective
B) The interpersonal perspective
C) The humanistic perspective
D) The existential perspective

Question 79

Freud's view of mental disorders was that they were a result of ________

A) unresolved conflicts between the id, the ego, and the superego.
B) genetic abnormalities that influence people's ability to cope with their environment.
C) problematic tendencies we develop while dealing with our early interpersonal environments.
D) learned maladaptive behaviors that were rewarded with attention.

Question 80

Which of the following statements about brain dysfunction and psychiatric disorders is correct?

A) Identifiable brain damage is often the cause of psychiatric disorders.
B) Brain damage may decrease the risk of developing a psychiatric condition.
C) Changes in brain function appear to play a role in many psychiatric disorders.
D) Brain development can be altered by experience, always leading to changes in the brain that decrease the risk of developing a psychiatric condition.