Deck 14: Decision Making

Question 1

In managerial decision making, optimal solutions are often impossible.

Answer 1

True

Question 2

Outcomes are typically improved when the identifying solutions and problem identification processes to be merged.

Answer 2

False

Question 3

Defining problems in terms of solutions is really a form of jumping to conclusions.

Answer 3

True

Question 4

A problem with low urgency and little impact will not grow if left unattended.

Question 5

Problems can be expected to arise in organizations where top management expends too much time and effort on nonprogrammed decisions.

Question 6

Decision makers should allow previously established goals and objectives to guide their decisions.

Question 7

Most decision makers are very similar in their willingness to take risk.

Question 8

A poor implementation will have no effect on a good decision.

Question 9

Gathering information and/or studying a situation can help a decision maker reduce the degree of uncertainty in decision-making.

Question 10

There is some degree of "satisfying" in almost all decisions that people make.

Question 11

One should quickly embrace "perfect" solutions.

Question 12

The decision itself is always more important than the implementation.

Question 13

The management of most organizations faces primarily nonprogrammed decisions during daily operations.

Question 14

Decisions are typically made without the benefit of perfect information and unlimited time to search for and evaluate alternative solutions.

Question 15

Two objectives can typically be optimized simultaneously.

Question 16

When a "good" decision is identified immediately, alternatives do not need to be developed.

Question 17

It is not necessary to reactivate the entire decision-making process if the original objective is revised.

Question 18

To a large extent, a decision maker's willingness to make ethical or unethical decisions will be influenced by his or her values.

Question 19

Every decision is the outcome of a static process.

Question 20

The test of the soundness of a decision is the behavior of the people involved relative to the decision.

Question 21

When determining problem significance, urgency _____________.

A) relates to impact
B) relates to time
C) refers to potential for negative outcomes
D) All of the above.

Question 22

___________ problems present themselves and must be attended to by the managers.

A) Routine
B) Crisis
C) Opportunity
D) Both A and B are correct.

Question 23

In some countries, it is inappropriate for senior executives to consult subordinates before making a decision.

Question 24

Problems typically result from a determination that a discrepancy exists between current reality and _______________.

A) prior reality
B) future reality
C) a desired state
D) an optimum state

Question 25

Certainty is possible in most decision-making _______________.

A) at home
B) at work
C) in the stock market
D) None of the choices are correct.

Question 26

The last step in the rational decision-making process is _____________.

A) alternative selection
B) implementation
C) follow-up and evaluation
D) communication of decision

Question 27

Which of the following is not one of the categories into which problems usually fall?

A) Opportunity
B) Crisis
C) Routine
D) Recurring

Question 28

Escalation of commitment is typically caused by a need to turn a poor decision into a winning decision.

Question 29

Under conditions of uncertainty, the decision maker has ____________of the probability of the outcome of _____alternative(s).

A) absolutely no knowledge, each
B) absolutely no knowledge, most
C) partial knowledge, each
D) partial knowledge, of a portion of the

Question 30

Team- or group-based decision-making is especially good for nonprogrammed problems.

Question 31

All of the following apply to non-programmed decisions except:

A) Necessity for creativity or intuition
B) Repetitive
C) Tolerance for ambiguity
D) Purchase of experimental equipment

Question 32

Which of the following is the best example of a programmed decision?

A) Procedure for admitting patients
B) Diversification into new products and markets
C) Deciding how to clean up after a flood
D) Construction of new classroom facilities

Question 33

The nominal group technique compares anonymous judgments on a topic through a series of sequential questionnaires.

Question 34

Determining problem significance involves consideration of all of the following except:

A) Urgency
B) Similarity to previous problems
C) Impact
D) Growth tendency

Question 35

A necessary condition for a decision is _______________.

A) a resource scarcity
B) an organizational need
C) self-confidence
D) a problem

Question 36

As it pertains to choosing a solution, the alternative-outcome relationship is based on all of the following conditions except:

A) Certainty
B) Uncertainty
C) Risk
D) Cost

Question 37

The first step in the rational decision-making process is _____________.

A) problem identification
B) establishing specific goals and objectives
C) development of alternatives
D) problem cognition

Question 38

Periodic reordering of inventory to maintain preset levels would be classified as which of the following decision types?

A) Nominal
B) Nuanced
C) Programed
D) Process

Question 39

_______________ describes the seriousness of a problem's effects.

A) Impact
B) Urgency
C) Immediacy
D) Growth tendency

Question 40

What kind of risk taker you are and your potential for anxiety following a decision are very closely related.

Question 41

Decision makers who _______________ are likely to be candidates for escalation of decision making.

A) are unclear of their goals
B) have a fear of failure
C) work in a culture of low trust
D) Any or All of the choices are correct.

Question 42

Post-decision dissonance is especially prevalent among decision makers at _______________ management levels in the organization.

A) lower
B) middle
C) upper
D) All of the choices are correct.

Question 43

Intuitive decision making is likely to take place under all of the following conditions except:

A) The environment is chaotic
B) The situation is changing rapidly
C) There is a history or past experience to draw upon.
D) There is intense pressure to come up with a solution

Question 44

The consequences of decisions that deal with _______________ leave leaders particularly susceptible to cognitive dissonance.

A) life and death
B) money
C) layoffs
D) hiring

Question 45

In the bounded rationality approach, all of the following assumptions are made except:

A) The consequences of alternative decisions can be predicted
B) Decision makers rarely have all the information they need or want
C) The organization's goals constrain decision making
D) Conflicting goals can force a compromise solution

Question 46

The potential for dissonance is influenced by_______________.

A) the ability to be persuaded
B) personality
C) self-confidence
D) All of the choices are correct.

Question 47

According to the text, all of the following contribute to decision-making anxiety except:

A) The decision is psychologically or financially important
B) There are a number of alternatives
C) The alternatives have many favorable features
D) One of the alternatives has been successful in the past

Question 48

Researcher Paul

A) Failing to understand people's concerns and competing claims
B) Allowing too much time to search for alternative and remedies
C) Ignoring or downplaying ethical questions
C) Nutt identified all of the following as decision-making traps except:
D) Defining expectations in an unclear manner

Question 49

Many decisions have an ethical dimension that requires all of the following except:

A) Thought
B) Reflection
C) Caution
D) Confession

Question 50

Researcher Paul

A) 10 percent
B) 25 percent
C) 50 percent
C) Nutt studied hundreds of actual managerial decisions and found that approximately _______________ of them failed.
D) over 75 percent

Question 51

A _____________ is an appointed critic of proposed group actions whose role is to uncover underlying issues with the prevailing direction of the group.

A) "detail devil"
B) "decision devil"
C) "devil's advocate"
D) "decision advocate"

Question 52

Gamblers who place larger and larger wagers in an effort to recoup earlier losses are displaying a decision-making behavior called _______________.

A) reverse pyramiding
B) load balancing
C) escalation of commitment
D) stacking the deck

Question 53

Of the following, _______________ are the least likely to hesitate to go around or over someone in the chain of command if doing so is helpful to the decision-making process.

A) Swedes
B) Mexicans
C) Americans
D) Germans

Question 54

Intuitive decision making occurs due to all of the following except:

A) High levels of uncertainty
B) Having no history or past experience to draw upon
C) A lack of time pressure
D) An excessive number of alternatives

Question 55

An unethical decision is either illegal or _______________.

A) expensive
B) morally unacceptable
C) devious
D) All of the choices are correct.

Question 56

__________ offered a descriptive approach that has described as the administrative decision-making model.

A) Drucker
B) Smith and Howell
C) March and Simon
D) I.H. Caffie

Question 57

Dissonance is often _______________ by admitting that a mistake has been made.

A) increased
B) reduced
C) unaffected
D) completely resolved

Question 58

Asking "If this decision was published in the newspaper, would the reader consider the decision ethical?" is subjecting a decision to _______________ test.

A) an ethics
B) a morality
C) a sunshine
D) a publicity

Question 59

An intuitive decision maker uses _______________ to process information, data, and the environment or to address a problem or solution.

A) experience
B) self-confidence
C) self-motivation
D) All of the choices are correct.

Question 60

In _______________, it is necessary to make value judgments regarding the selection of opportunities and the assignment of priorities.

A) establishing objectives
B) developing alternatives
C) choosing an alternative
D) the evaluation and control phase

Question 61

The Delphi technique has the advantage of having several _______________ while removing the biasing effects that might occur during face-to-face interaction.

A) "delphs"
B) possible solutions
C) communication methods
D) judges

Question 62

When it comes to evaluating alternative solutions, _______________ make superior judgments.

A) individuals
B) groups
C) neither individuals nor groups
D) both individuals and groups

Question 63

How can an organization focus management attention away from crises and routine problems and toward longer-range issues?

Question 64

Research has shown that consensus decisions with five or more participants are superior to _______________.

A) individual decision making
B) majority vote
C) leader decisions
D) All of the choices are correct.

Question 65

Groups usually require _______________ to make decisions, compared to individuals.

A) more time
B) less time
C) the same amount of time
D) None of the above, there is no relation between decision time and groups

Question 66

Provide an example of a nonprogramed secession that may face a university.

Question 67

_______________ thinking is a process of generating novel ways to solve problems faced by an individual or group.

A) Bilateral
B) Lateral
C) Diagonal
D) Horizontal

Question 68

The tendency of people in a team to not work as hard mentally or physically as they would alone is called _______________.

A) downward norm setting
B) conformity
C) idea production blocking
D) social loafing

Question 69

_______________ occurs when a team member has to wait his/her turn to provide an idea that contributes to a brainstorming session.

A) Social loafing
B) Conformity
C) Idea production blocking
D) Downward norm setting

Question 70

_______________ includes a strict series of rules by which participants must abide.

A) The Philadelphia process
B) The normal group technique
C) Brainstorming
D) The IM process

Question 71

Creative decision makers have been found to have all of the following characteristics in common except:

A) High intelligence
B) Perseverance
C) Risk-taking propensity
D) Tolerance of ambiguity

Question 72

_______________ creative potential.

A) Groups have the most
B) Individuals have the most
C) Groups and individuals are equal in
D) The youngest members of a group have

Question 73

All of the following are techniques for stimulating creativity except:

A) Brainstorming
B) Delphi technique
C) Nominal group technique
D) Free-wheeling

Question 74

What should you measure to determine how critical a problem is for the organization?

Question 75

The success of the Green Berets is determined by their ability to collectively and creatively implement solutions to _______________ situations.

A) combat
B) novel
C) life and death
D) dangerous

Question 76

Problems usually are of three types; what are they?

Question 77

The nominal group technique employs all of the following except:

A) A structured group meeting
B) Verbal brainstorming
C) One person who acts as the recorder
D) Group voting on or ranking of ideas

Question 78

As we move from "individual" to "consensus" decisions, the _______________ of the decision improves.

A) quality
B) implementation
C) cost savings
D) simplicity

Question 79

In solution selection, group interaction and the achievement of consensus usually results in the acceptance of more _______________ than would be accepted by an individual decision maker.

A) risk
B) novelty
C) accountability
D) innovation

Question 80

When does an uncertain situation exist?