Deck 2: Biological Foundations

Question 1

Which of the following statements best describes the sickle-cell trait?

A) Individuals with the trait have the dominant phenotype but possess the recessive genotype.
B) Individuals with the trait have both a dominant and recessive allele for the disorder.
C) Individuals with the trait are genetically predisposed to the disorder but cannot display any symptoms.
D) Individuals with the trait tend to have the most severe form of the disease.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

In people with sickle-cell anemia, certain red blood cells in their bodies are different from normal. What is different about these red blood cells?

A) their size
B) their shape
C) their density
D) their location

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Linda has one allele for curly hair and another for straight hair. What kind of alleles are these?

A) polyzygotic alleles
B) dizygotic alleles
C) homozygous alleles
D) heterozygous alleles

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Which of the following analogies could be used to complete the phrase, "Genotype is to phenotype as"?

A) homozygous is to heterozygous
B) nurture is to nature
C) DNA is to RNA
D) chromosome pattern is to facial features

Question 5

Which of the following comparisons can be used to complete the phrase, "Homozygous is to heterozygous as"?

A) same is to different
B) recessive is to dominant
C) genotype is to phenotype
D) many is to few

Question 6

Joseph is homozygous for normal blood cells. What does this mean?

A) He is an identical twin.
B) He has matching alleles.
C) He has recessive alleles.
D) He is likely to develop sickle-cell anemia.

Question 7

What do we call the threadlike structures in the nucleus of a cell that contain genetic material?

A) chromosomes
B) germ discs
C) ectoderms
D) phenotypes

Question 8

Which of the following examples best illustrates the concept of genetic incomplete dominance?

A) an individual with two alleles for baldness who has long hair
B) an individual with two alleles for shyness who is shy
C) an individual with one allele for obesity and another for thinness who is of average weight
D) an individual with a single allele for aggression who is violent

Question 9

Kali is 180 centimetres (5 feet, 11 inches) tall, plays tennis, and is an all around nice person. What is this is a description of?

A) Kali's allele
B) Kali's genotype
C) Kali's homozygosity
D) Kali's phenotype

Question 10

Torey and Bill consult a geneticist regarding the risk that their baby will inherit sickle-cell disease. They are told that Torey carries the affected allele and Bill does not. What does this mean?

A) There is a 25% chance the baby will inherit sickle cell trait, and no chance of inheriting the disease.
B) There is a 100% chance the baby will inherit the sickle cell disease.
C) There is a 50% chance the baby will inherit sickle cell trait, and no chance of inheriting the disease.
D) There is a 25% chance the baby will inherit sickle cell trait, and a 25% chance of inheriting the disease.

Question 11

Which chromosomes are known as autosomes?

A) the first 2 pairs
B) the first 10 pairs
C) the first 22 pairs
D) the first 46 pairs

Question 12

Ian is approached by a mad scientist who says he will pay Ian either $100 for each pair of his autosomes or $500 for each pair of his sex chromosomes. Assuming Ian wants to make as much money as possible, which offer should he take?

A) $100 for each pair of autosomes
B) $500 for each pair of sex chromosomes
C) either one, because Ian will make the same amount with both offers
D) neither one, because unfortunately humans have neither autosomes nor sex chromosomes

Question 13

Approximately how many genes does the average child have?

A) 25
B) 25 000
C) 25 000 000
D) 25 000 000 000

Question 14

Which term describes the functional units of heredity?

A) gene
B) allele
C) DNA
D) chromosome

Question 15

Kirk is heterozygous for cheek dimples but is born with big dimples in both cheeks. What does this say about the allele for cheek dimples?

A) It is dominant.
B) It is sex-linked.
C) It is recessive.
D) It is polygenetic.

Question 16

What makes up DNA?

A) red, blue, green and yellow proteins alternating on a helix
B) X and Y chromosomes
C) genotypes, phenotypes, and alleles alternating on fibrous nodes
D) adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine wrapped together on phosphate and sugar strands

Question 17

Which letter is used to designate one of the human sex chromosomes?

A) B
B) O
C) Y
D) S

Question 18

Which process can best be explained by alleles?

A) the fact that phenotypes produce genotypes
B) the formation of identical twins
C) the fact that red blood cells can be shaped differently
D) the teratogenic effects associated with fetal alcohol syndrome

Question 19

Genes provide the cell with a specific set of instructions. What kind of instructions are they?

A) hormonal instructions
B) biochemical instructions
C) in vitro instructions
D) bioelectric instructions

Question 20

If tallness is dominant and designated as "T," and shortness is recessive and designated as "s," who would likely be short?

A) Brian, who is "sT"
B) Carrie, who is "Ts"
C) Danny, who is "ss"
D) Kris, who is "TT"

Question 21

If a physician informed you that your speech disorder was the result of problems on chromosomes 4, 7, and 15, what could you rightly conclude that the disorder?

A) It is always classifiable as recessive.
B) It is always classifiable as polygenetic.
C) It is always classifiable as dominant.
D) It is always classifiable as sex-linked.

Question 22

Gloria has a rare sex chromosome disorder with which she has difficulty in perceiving spatial relations. What is the name of Gloria's disorder?

A) Klinefelter's syndrome
B) XYY complement
C) Turner's syndrome
D) XXX syndrome

Question 23

Which individual with a genetic predisposition toward being extroverted is demonstrating successful niche-picking?

A) Rick, who is a game show host
B) Wilbur, who is a horse trainer
C) Sebastian, who is a hermit who lives in a cave by himself
D) Dexter, who spends a lot of time studying in the library

Question 24

Dr. Smith has found that a certain genotype for depression may result in a wide variety of phenotypes, depending on environmental factors. What does this information say about this genotype?

A) It has a large reaction range.
B) It is polygenetic.
C) It is sex-linked.
D) It is heterozygous for many traits.

Question 25

Which maternal characteristic is most strongly associated with giving birth to a baby with Down syndrome?

A) low levels of intelligence (i.e., mental retardation)
B) consumption of alcohol
C) advanced maternal age
D) exposure to lead or mercury

Question 26

José, who was adopted at birth, is found to have personality characteristics more similar to his biological mother than to his adoptive mother. How should you interpret these data?

A) Personality appears to be a polygenetic characteristic.
B) Personality characteristics are learned.
C) Personality characteristics are influenced by genes.
D) Personality characteristics appear to be recessive.

Question 27

Your friend's baby, Kayla, has been diagnosed with a disorder with which she is lacking an important liver enzyme. This enzyme has the potential to delay Kayla's cognitive development. What is this disorder?

A) Huntington's disease
B) Hodgkin's lymphoma
C) Parkinson's disease
D) Phenylketonuria

Question 28

When Danny is informed that his newborn son has PKU (phenylketonuria), how would he be most likely to react?

A) He would very be concerned since PKU is an incurable genetic disorder that results in severe mental retardation.
B) He would not be concerned since PKU can be cured with drug treatments.
C) He would not be concerned since PKU is a sex-linked disorder that affects only females.
D) He would not concerned since PKU can be controlled by a specific diet.

Question 29

After a prenatal exam, your physician remarks, "It appears as if your fetus has 47 chromosomes." What would be the most likely response to this information?

A) concern, as this may indicate that your child has Down syndrome
B) concern, as this may indicate that your child has sickle-cell anemia
C) concern, as this may indicate that your child has PKU
D) relief, since this is a normal number of chromosomes

Question 30

Which results would be inaccurate regarding the idea that genes play a significant role in behaviour?

A) finding dizygotic twins to be more similar than monozygotic twins
B) finding children to be more similar to their biological parents than to their adoptive parents
C) finding similarities between biological siblings
D) finding monozygotic twins to be more similar than pairs of unrelated individuals

Question 31

Huntington's disease is an unusual genetic disorder. What happens with the dominant alleles in a person with this fatal disease?

A) The impact is late enough in life that the individual can reproduce.
B) The disease is controllable through diet.
C) The alleles both must come from mom.
D) The disease strikes only males.

Question 32

Which of the following phenotypes is recessive?

A) farsightedness
B) Rh-negative blood
C) dark hair
D) thick lips

Question 33

Since John and Stan have the same genes, what must they be?

A) dizygotic twins
B) monozygotic twins
C) heterozygous
D) codominant

Question 34

Jewel and Bjork are dizygotic twins. What does dizygotic mean?

A) that Jewel and Bjork are genetically identical
B) that Jewel and Bjork must have come from the same fertilized egg
C) that Jewel and Bjork share all phenotypes
D) that Jewel and Bjork share about half of their genes

Question 35

Despite being raised in two very different environments, identical twins Tina and Ginny receive a similar score on a shyness scale. What do these results suggest about the range of reactions for shyness?

A) It is small.
B) It is large.
C) It is inverse.
D) It is polygenetic.

Question 36

Kim Lee has a disorder associated with the sex-chromosomes in which she has a normal physical appearance, but her motor and language development is delayed. What condition does Kim Lee have?

A) Klinefelter's syndrome
B) XXY complement
C) Turner's syndrome
D) XXX syndrome

Question 37

Which combination of sex-chromosomes is unrealistic in a living human being?

A) a single X-chromosome
B) XXY
C) XYY
D) a single Y-chromosome

Question 38

You read in a book on behaviour genetics that intelligence is a polygenetic characteristic. What does this mean?

A) It means that intelligent behaviour is the result of multiple genes.
B) It means that intelligent behaviour is caused by the impact of a single gene.
C) It means that intelligent behaviour is more a result of environment than it is the result of genes.
D) It means that intelligent behaviour is a sex-linked characteristic.

Question 39

According to the textbook, which of the following test methods can be used to isolate particular segments of DNA in human chromosomes?

A) a urine test
B) a cotton swab rubbed inside the mouth
C) a blood test for a particular blood type
D) an x-ray test

Question 40

What factor would play the largest role in determining the initial reaction range for any behaviour?

A) available environments
B) personal motivation
C) genetics
D) arousal level

Question 41

If Angela found out that she was conceived through in vitro fertilization, what would she know for certain?

A) She was conceived in a petri dish.
B) She was conceived inside a fallopian tube.
C) Her biological parents were not the same as the parents who reared her.
D) The woman who carried her as a baby was not the woman who reared her.

Question 42

What do we call the structure through which a pregnant woman and an embryo exchange waste and nutrients?

A) the amnion
B) the stem cell
C) the germ disc
D) the placenta

Question 43

Jane is an introverted artist who prefers the solitude of her painting studio to the limelight of the art gallery. What term best describes this example of seeking the environment that fits Jane's heredity?

A) environmental sculpting
B) eccentricity
C) niche-picking
D) nonshared environmental influence

Question 44

Whose behaviour best exemplifies eugenics?

A) Dr. Green, who uses an in vitro fertilization technique
B) Dr. Black, who allows only certain individuals to mate in an effort to build a master race
C) Dr. White, who studies the effects of thalidomide on prenatal development
D) Dr. Brown, who closely monitors the nutrition of expecting mothers

Question 45

Patty is pregnant, and her body is currently experiencing the event that triggers hormonal changes that will prevent further menstruation. What is this event called?

A) implantation
B) conception
C) dilation
D) effacement

Question 46

What do we call the point at which a zygote burrows into the uterine wall?

A) fertilization
B) implantation
C) niche-picking
D) dilation

Question 47

What do we call a developing human being that is travelling from a fallopian tube to the uterus?

A) an embryo
B) a fetus
C) a zygote
D) an amnion

Question 48

While observing a special monitor, a physician tells an expectant mother, "As you can see, the legs and arms have just begun to emerge." From this description, what are they looking at?

A) the zygote
B) the fetus
C) the embryo
D) the germ disc

Question 49

Approximately how many "test tube" babies are born each year around the world?

A) 45 000
B) 50 000
C) 55 000
D) 60 000

Question 50

What do we call the cluster of cells in the centre of the zygote that will eventually develop into the body?

A) the amnion
B) the stem cell
C) the germ disc
D) the placenta

Question 51

What do we call the sac in which the embryo resides?

A) the ectoderm
B) the amnion
C) the germ disc
D) the placenta

Question 52

Jack and Emily are twins. Because he is a boy, Jack's dad and mom encourage him to run. On the other hand, Jack's mom and dad discourage Emily from engaging in athletic activity. As a result Jack is much faster at running than Emily is. What best explains the difference in Jack and Emily's behaviour?

A) nonshared environmental influences
B) active gene-environment relations
C) polygenetic effects
D) niche-picking

Question 53

What do we call the developing human organism that has just become completely embedded in the wall of the uterus?

A) the amnion
B) the fetus
C) the zygote
D) the embryo

Question 54

During the embryonic period, what forms the hair and the nervous system?

A) cells in the mesoderm layer
B) cells in the endoderm layer
C) cells in the placenta layer
D) cells in the ectoderm layer

Question 55

Which period is considered to be the first part of prenatal development?

A) the fetal period
B) the zygote period
C) the neonatal period
D) the embryonic period

Question 56

What does the period of the zygote begin with?

A) ovulation
B) ejaculation
C) implantation
D) fertilization

Question 57

What is one key purpose of the amniotic fluid?

A) to provide the embryo with nutrients
B) to stimulate development of neurotransmitters
C) to screen the flow of blood between the mother and the embryo
D) to maintain a constant temperature for the embryo

Question 58

Which period lasts for approximately two weeks?

A) the embryonic period
B) the zygote period
C) the fetal period
D) the neonatal period

Question 59

Dr. Proctor tells Uma that the embryo developing in Uma is showing distortions in the development of its circulatory system. Where is this problem located?

A) within cells of the placenta layer
B) within cells of the mesoderm layer
C) within cells of the ectoderm layer
D) within cells of the endoderm layer

Question 60

What forms the embryo's digestive system?

A) cells in the mesoderm layer
B) cells in the endoderm layer
C) cells in the placenta layer
D) cells in the ectoderm layer

Question 61

Bryant has unusual facial features (i.e., short nose and wide-set eyes) and shows signs of mental retardation. What did Bryant's mother most likely do while she was pregnant?

A) She consumed alcohol.
B) She injected heroin.
C) She smoked marijuana.
D) She consumed an excessive amount of caffeine.

Question 62

What is a teratogen?

A) any agent that increases the likelihood of abnormal prenatal development
B) any agent that enhances the flow of oxygen across the placental barrier
C) any agent that decreases the chances of having a child with a genetic disorder
D) any agent that inhibits the impact of drugs on the developing embryo

Question 63

What was the most critical lesson about teratogens learned from the use of the drug DES?

A) Sometimes what appear to be teratogens actually are harmless drugs.
B) Infants in the late fetal period appear to be the most at-risk for impact from drug-related teratogens.
C) Sometimes the effects of teratogens are not apparent until long after exposure.
D) Females appear to be at much greater risk from teratogens.

Question 64

Which of the following characteristics can cause a person to be more susceptible to a teratogen?

A) gender
B) overall health status
C) age
D) heredity

Question 65

Whose mother most likely took thalidomide while pregnant?

A) Dean, who has a heart defect
B) Michael, who has deformed arms and legs
C) Jerry, who is deaf
D) Larry, who is severely mentally retarded

Question 66

Which of the following is a teratogen?

A) jelly beans
B) energy drinks
C) vitamin supplements
D) nicotine

Question 67

What do AIDS and genital herpes have in common?

A) They can be passed along to an infant as they pass through the birth canal.
B) They typically result in blindness.
C) They cannot be transmitted to a fetus through the placenta.
D) They can be eliminated by maternal inoculation.

Question 68

Just after the birth of her son Nick, mom Kelly was informed that little Nick's neural tube did not properly close during his prenatal development. What condition does Nick appear to have?

A) spina bifida
B) muscular dystrophy
C) cerebral palsy
D) sickle-cell anemia

Question 69

What houses the blood vessels that connect the embryo and its mother?

A) the umbilical cord
B) the amnion
C) the germ disc
D) the mesoderm

Question 70

Why do teenage mothers tend to give birth to less healthy infants than mothers in their 20s?

A) because the teens tend to neither seek nor receive good prenatal care
B) because the teens take too many vitamins
C) because the teens have more genetically defective eggs
D) because the teens are more likely to smoke while pregnant

Question 71

Marsha's doctor informs her that her child is just entering the longest period of prenatal development. About how long has Marsha been carrying her unborn child?

A) 1 day
B) 3 weeks
C) 9 weeks
D) 28 weeks

Question 72

Currently, what is the earliest "age of viability"?

A) about 14 weeks after conception
B) about 22 weeks after conception
C) about 30 weeks after conception
D) about 38 weeks after conception

Question 73

What did the Jacobson, Jacobson, and Humphrey (1990) study on the effects of prenatal exposure to PCBs find?

A) Any level of exposure led to blindness and retardation.
B) Low and high levels of exposure led to retardation but not blindness.
C) High levels of exposure led to blindness and retardation.
D) A woman may be unable to protect herself from invisible environmental teratogens.

Question 74

When is maternal stress most likely to negatively impact a developing embryo/fetus?

A) when that stress is intermittent and extreme
B) when that stress is intermittent and moderate
C) when that stress is chronic and extreme
D) when that stress is chronic and moderate

Question 75

What do we call the thick, "greasy" substance that covers the fetus around five to six months after conception?

A) placenta
B) vernix
C) amnion
D) endoderm

Question 76

Gregg and Gracie were relaxing while watching TV, when suddenly their fetus began to kick for the first time. At approximately what age does a fetus begin to kick, punch, or turn somersaults?

A) 5 months
B) 6 months
C) 7 months
D) 8 months

Question 77

While JoEllen did not smoke during her pregnancy, her husband, Jerry did. What effect does second hand smoke have on a child?

A) impaired motor skills
B) deformed limbs
C) smaller birthweight
D) breathing difficulties

Question 78

What has research on prenatal exposure to cell phone usage found?

A) The most likely impact involves mental retardation.
B) Cell phone exposure has more impact on the mother than the fetus.
C) Research has been inconclusive up to this point in time.
D) The radiation levels of cell phones are similar to those of a common x-ray.

Question 79

What was the main finding of DeCasper and Spence's (1986) study in which pregnant mothers read the story The Cat in the Hat?

A) Prior to birth, the fetuses began to mimic the sounds their mothers were making.
B) After birth, the infants appeared to recognize the rhythm at which the mothers had read the stories.
C) After birth, the infants showed no reaction when they once again heard the story.
D) After birth, the infants who had been read to began to speak at an earlier age than a control group that had not been read to.

Question 80

Dr. Cortez informs Julia that her fetus has developed a fine, silky hair that covers the majority of her baby's skin surface. While Julia is concerned about this, Dr. Cortez informs her that the hair will be mostly shed before the baby's birth. What is the name of this hair?

A) baby hair
B) fetal hair
C) down
D) lanugo