Deck 24: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems

Question 1

The presence of Gram-negative diplococci in pus from an inflamed penis is diagnostic for infection by

A) human herpesvirus 2.
B) Treponema pallidum.
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
D) Chlamydia trachomatis.
E) Mycoplasma hominis.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which of the following contributes to the invasiveness of Treponema pallidum?

A) hyaluronidase
B) fimbriae
C) lipooligosaccharide in the cell wall
D) TSST
E) IgA protease

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Where in the kidney is blood initially filtered to form urine?

A) the renal capsule
B) efferent arterioles
C) the collecting duct
D) the nephron
E) the renal pyramids

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Mature sperm cells are stored in a male's

A) testes.
B) vas deferens.
C) prostate gland.
D) prepuce.
E) epididymis.

Question 5

Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial vaginosis frequently used to confirm diagnosis?

A) an abnormal vaginal discharge.
B) an acidic vaginal pH.
C) fever and rash.
D) the presence of buboes
E) the presence of clue cells

Question 6

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding gonorrhea?

A) It is easily confused with chancroid.
B) The causative agent can grow on most mucous membranes of the body.
C) Women usually experience severe symptoms early in infection.
D) Asymptomatic infections have no long-term consequences.
E) Gonorrhea produces good long-term specific immunity.

Question 7

Microbial infection of the bladder is called

A) cystitis.
B) ectopic.
C) prostatitis.
D) pyelonephritis.
E) bacteriosis.

Question 8

Ophthalmia neonatorum is an infection caused by

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Gardnerella vaginalis.
D) Candida albicans.
E) Treponema pallidum.

Question 9

Untreated infection of males with Neisseria gonorrhoeae may result in

A) gummas.
B) sterility.
C) orchitis.
D) glomerulonephritis.
E) penile cancer.

Question 10

Diagnosis of syphilis is usually made by

A) the MHA-TP test.
B) culturing specimens on laboratory media.
C) microscopic evaluation of stained specimens.
D) DNA probes.
E) a Pap smear.

Question 11

Which of the following structures allows fetal blood vessels to exchange nutrients and wastes with the mother's blood vessels?

A) the uterus
B) the uterine tubes
C) the placenta
D) the cervix
E) the clitoris

Question 12

The typical sign of primary syphilis is

A) a chancre at the site of infection.
B) a widespread rash.
C) lymphadenopathy.
D) gummas in various organs.
E) paralysis.

Question 13

At what age is a young female most susceptible to urinary tract infections?

A) at birth
B) 3 years old
C) 18 years old
D) 10 years old
E) 12 years old

Question 14

What type of infection is candidiasis?

A) yeast
B) bacterial
C) viral
D) protozoan
E) spirochete

Question 15

The majority of cases of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome occur in

A) newly delivered mothers.
B) uncircumcised males.
C) anyone with a Staphylococcus aureus infection.
D) nasal surgery patients.
E) menstruating women.

Question 16

Which of the following is associated with Candida infections?

A) gummas
B) pseudohyphae
C) reticulate bodies
D) pelvic inflammatory disease
E) lymphogranuloma venereum

Question 17

Neisseria gonorrhoeae most commonly infects which of the following in females?

A) the uterus
B) the vagina
C) the cervix
D) the fallopian tubes
E) the ovaries

Question 18

A distinctive feature of secondary syphilis is

A) a widespread rash that can include the palms and soles.
B) hard, red, painless bumps.
C) rubbery, painful lesions.
D) soft, painful ulcers.
E) blister-like lesions which ulcerate.

Question 19

Which of the following transmits leptospirosis?

A) infected animal urine
B) infected animal bites
C) humans infected with leptospirosis
D) infected animal feces
E) droplet nuclei

Question 20

During the spring calving season a ranch hand begins to run a fever and feel nauseous and achy. After he develops a headache and vomiting, he goes to a clinic. A microscopic exam of a urine sample reveals long thin microbes which move very rapidly in a corkscrewing pattern. The man may have contracted

A) chancroid.
B) glomerulonephritis.
C) leptospirosis.
D) staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome.
E) trichomoniasis.

Question 21

Genital herpes and genital warts are both caused by human herpesviruses .

Question 22

Pap smears are used in the diagnosis of

A) tertiary syphilis.
B) cervical cancer.
C) trichomoniasis.
D) genital herpes.
E) chancroid.

Question 23

Condylomata acuminata are associated with infections of which of the following?

A) Trichomonas vaginalis
B) human herpesvirus 1
C) papillomaviruses
D) human herpesvirus 2
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Question 24

The urethra is the only part of the urinary system in which one would expect to find normal microbiota.

Question 25

The normal microbiota of the vagina help maintain a vaginal pH of around 7.5.

Question 26

The major sign of Haemophilus ducreyi infection is similar to the major sign of infection by

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B) Treponema pallidum.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Candida albicans.
E) Chlamydia trachomatis.

Question 27

In addition to the genital tract, various strains of Chlamydia trachomatis can infect which of the following?

A) lymph nodes
B) the lungs
C) the conjunctiva
D) lymph nodes and conjunctiva
E) lymph nodes, lungs, and conjunctiva

Question 28

A young adult shows up at a free clinic complaining of painful swellings in the groin. The young woman has a history of occasional casual sex, but denies noticing any genital sores or experiencing painful urination. The young woman is most likely infected with

A) Chlamydia trachomatis.
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
C) Haemophilus ducreyi.
D) Treponema pallidum.
E) Trichomonas vaginalis.

Question 29

The noninfective, obligately intracellular forms of chlamydia are called

A) elementary bodies.
B) phagosomes.
C) pseudohyphae.
D) glomerular capsules.
E) reticulate bodies.

Question 30

Syphilis can be transmitted

A) by sexual contact.
B) from mother to fetus.
C) by fomites.
D) both by sexual contact and from mother to fetus.
E) by sexual contact, by fomites, and from mother to fetus.

Question 31

Which of the following is the cause of the most common curable STD in women?

A) human herpesvirus 2
B) Haemophilus ducreyi
C) Trichomonas vaginalis
D) Gardnerella vaginalis
E) Chlamydia trachomatis

Question 32

Trichomonas vaginalis is usually transmitted via sexual intercourse because it

A) requires a growth factor found only in the vagina.
B) penetrates cells lining the genitourinary tract.
C) participates with HIV in coinfections.
D) produces cysts that germinate in the vagina.
E) cannot live long outside the body.

Question 33

Chancroid is caused by

A) human herpesvirus 2.
B) Trichomonas vaginalis.
C) Haemophilus ducreyi.
D) Treponema pallidum.
E) Mycoplasma hominis.

Question 34

The risk of developing toxic shock syndrome is increased by the use of super-absorbent tampons.

Question 35

Gonorrhea in women is always asymptomatic.

Question 36

The most common sexually transmitted bacterium is

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B) Haemophilus ducreyi.
C) Treponema pallidum.
D) Chlamydia trachomatis.
E) Mycoplasma hominis.

Question 37

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding genital herpes?

A) Re-appearance of lesions is the result of new infections..
B) It can only be transmitted when lesions are evident.
C) There is an effective vaccine to prevent infection.
D) Acyclovir is effective in reducing the occurrence of lesions, but is not a cure.
E) Herpes can be prevented using vaginal spermicidal creams.

Question 38

A woman goes to her gynecologist and reports that she is experiencing pain during intercourse and frequently has an unusual vaginal discharge that is increased in quantity and sort of foamy. A vaginal smear shows normal appearing epithelial cells along with small leaf-shaped cells with prominent oval nuclei. What disease is the woman experiencing?

A) cervical cancer
B) herpes
C) chancroid
D) syphilis
E) trichomoniasis

Question 39

A diagnosis of genital herpes is confirmed by the

A) detection of herpesvirus DNA by PCR.
B) location of herpetic lesions.
C) appearance and size of herpetic lesions.
D) appearance of stained tissue specimens.
E) binding of fluorescent antibodies.

Question 40

Which of the following can mimic gonorrhea infections?

A) syphilis
B) chancroid
C) trichomoniasis
D) chlamydia
E) candidiasis

Question 41

Diseases of the reproductive system that are not typically transmitted sexually are called __________ diseases.

Question 42

The most common symptom of chancroid in women is a vaginal discharge.

Question 43

The frequent, urgent, and painful urination that often results from urinary tract infections is called __________.

Question 44

Trichomoniasis increases patients' susceptibility to infection by HIV.

Question 45

Glycogen is converted to acid in the vagina by ________, thereby contributing to an acidic pH in that area.

Question 46

Buboes are a major sign that appears in half of all patients with __________, a disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi.

Question 47

When chlamydias spread from the genitalia to the rectum, they can cause an inflammatory process called __________.

Question 48

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a general term for inflammation and pain in the uterus, uterine tubes, or __________.

Question 49

Clinical manifestations of chlamydia infections arise primarily from an inflammatory response to the destruction of infected cells.

Question 50

A whitlow is the result of human papillomavirus infection of the skin of the hand.

Question 51

The presence of clue cells is an important aspect of the diagnosis of bacterial __________.

Question 52

A bacterial infection, __________ is characterized by fever, fatigue, vomiting and back or flank pain.

Question 53

Infection with virulent strains of human __________ virus may result in large painful condylomata acuminata on the genitalia.

Question 54

The fetus absorbs nutrients and oxygen from the mother's bloodstream through the __________.

Question 55

Mental confusion is often the only sign of a urinary tract infection in elderly patients.

Question 56

The __________ Treponema pallidum has never been grown successfully in cell-free media, but it can be grown in rabbits and monkeys.

Question 57

The drug of choice for treating primary and secondary syphilis is __________G.

Question 58

Because the __________ is shorter in females than in males, it can be a portal of entry for pathogens.

Question 59

Enteric bacteria are Gram-__________ pathogens, such as Escherichia coli, that are a common cause of urinary tract infections.

Question 60

The yeast infection __________ can become systemic in AIDS patients.

Question 61

Some areas of the genitourinary tract are normally sterile, whereas other areas have a variety of microbiota. Describe the defense mechanisms of the genitourinary tract that contribute to this dichotomy.

Question 62

A patient complains of fever, pain on one side of the body, and fatigue. The clinician notes that the skin is red, but the rash is not spotty. The patient reports experiencing some painful urination for a few days during the previous week. Tests on a urine sample reveal the presence of motile Gram-negative bacilli. What is the patient most likely suffering from?

Question 63

Some sexually transmitted diseases mimic other STDs with regard to their symptoms; give an example of two of these types of diseases, describing how the symptoms of each disease resemble those of another STD.

Question 64

Explain why some syphilis patients may only experience the symptoms of primary syphilis, while other patients may progress all the way to tertiary syphilis.

Question 65

Explain why a female who has a history of gonorrhea infections is more likely to have an ectopic pregnancy.