Deck 1: Conscientious and Rational Prescribing in the 21st Century

Question 1

Which amendment to the FDCA established the two classes of drugs: legend or prescription only and over the counter?

A)Durham-Humphrey Amendment (Prescription Drug Amendment)
B)New Drug Application Amendment
C)Health Education and Welfare Amendment
D)Kefauer Harris Amendment

Answer 1

Durham-Humphrey Amendment (Prescription Drug Amendment)

Question 2

Which medication is an example of a schedule I (C-I)drug?

A)oxycodone
B)mescaline
C)fentanyl
D)diazepam

Answer 2

mescaline

Question 3

The majority of "off-label" or unapproved usages for drugs are prescribed for which patient groups?

A)Pediatric patients and patients on chemotherapy
B)Patients with neurologic diseases
C)Obese patients
D)Pregnant patients

Answer 3

Pediatric patients and patients on chemotherapy

Question 4

Which statement regarding over-the-counter (OTC)drugs is true?

A)OTC drugs are rarely associated with toxicity or overdose.
B)No OTC drugs are also available in a higher dosage form by prescription.
C)OTC drugs are generally more expensive than prescription drugs.
D)OTC drugs contain directions and information on the label and packaging to allow consumers to self-medicate.

Question 5

Which statement regarding schedule II (C-II)controlled substance drugs is true?

A)Heroin is an example of a schedule II drug.
B)Prescribers can write orders that include up to five refills of schedule II prescription drugs.
C)Cough syrup with codeine is an example of a schedule II drug.
D)Emergency verbal orders for a schedule II drug must be confirmed with a written prescription within 72 hours.

Question 6

In the early 1960s,the serious birth defects caused by thalidomide prompted which of the following amendments to the FDCA?

A)Kefauver Harris Drug Efficacy Amendment
B)Dietary Supplement and Health Act
C)Orphan Drug Status Act
D)Controlled Substances Act

Question 7

Which statement regarding extemporaneous compounding is false?

A)Extemporaneous compounding is the pharmacist's art of preparing a drug product for a specific patient using a physician's prescription,a drug formula,or a recipe.
B)Calculated amounts of ingredients are measured out and made into a uniform mixture.
C)Extemporaneous compounding is the pharmacist's art of preparing a drug product for a patient using his own drug formula rather than a physician's prescription.
D)Pediatric dosages are commonly compounded when only adult dosages are available.

Question 8

Clinical pharmacology is best defined as:

A)The study of the optimum use of medication in patients.
B)The study of the human body's reaction to a drug over a specified time.
C)The biologic actions of a drug at its site of action.
D)The study of the effects of genetic variations on pharmacologic processes.

Question 9

Which of the following examples could be the inscription component on a prescription?

A)John Smith,RPA-C,License number
B)Dispense # 20
C)Cefuroxime 500 mg
D)Take one tablet PO twice daily for 10 days

Question 10

The package insert (PI)attached to a prescription drug contains all of the following information except:

A)U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved drug information.
B)Highly detailed adverse effects and dosage information for the prescriber.
C)Information in layman's terms for the patient.
D)Pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic drug information.

Question 11

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention,the number of preventable medical errors per year is approximately:

A)100,000.
B)25,000.
C)1 million.
D)500,000.

Question 12

Which of the following best defines the term adulteration of drugs?

A)Adding contaminants or anything not stated on a drug label
B)Claiming a drug is a cure for a certain condition,such as cancer
C)Advertising a drug for a poorly defined condition,such as miasma
D)Claiming a drug is safe when its safety has not been established in preclinical trials

Question 13

The major goals of the Controlled Substances Act (CSA)include all of the following except:

A)Improving the manufacturing,distribution,prescribing,and dispensing of controlled substances by legitimate persons in the health-care sector.
B)Providing research into issues of drug addiction and rehabilitation.
C)Stopping the widespread diversion of controlled substances into illicit or "street" channels.
D)Establishing laws and criminal sentences for the possession and sale of illicit controlled substances.

Question 14

Adverse drug events:

A)Occur once a day in every hospital in the United States.
B)Do not increase health care-related costs.
C)Are less common among Medicare patients.
D)Are not common among residents in a long-term care facility.

Question 15

Which statement regarding herbals,vitamins,minerals,and food supplements is true?

A)Herbals,vitamins,minerals,and food supplements are not regulated by the U.S.Food,Drug,and Cosmetic Act (FDCA).
B)Manufacturers must prove the safety of their herbals,vitamins,minerals,and food supplements.
C)Manufacturers must prove that their herbals,vitamins,minerals,and food supplements are free from adulteration.
D)Manufacturers must prove the legitimacy of any claims they make about their herbals,vitamins,minerals,and food supplements.

Question 16

Which statement is true regarding the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)categories of scheduled drugs?

A)Schedule I drugs have a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the United States.
B)Schedule I drugs have a low potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the United States.
C)Schedule II drugs have a low potential for abuse.
D)Schedule V drugs have a high potential for abuse.

Question 17

Which statement is true regarding medication errors?

A)Telephone communication of drug orders decreases the frequency of medication errors.
B)Mail order medications are less likely to cause issues with medication errors.
C)Lack of patient history information is a common source of medication errors.
D)Patient education regarding medications should be left to the pharmacist to avoid medication errors.

Question 18

The "Signa," or signatura,component of a written prescription includes:

A)Patient data,such as age,name,and gender.
B)Prescriber data,such as name,practice location and phone number,and professional degree.
C)Instructions the prescriber has given to the patient,which will appear on medication label.
D)Brand or generic name and strength of medication.

Question 19

Which statement is true regarding medication errors?

A)They are most commonly the result of a single event.
B)They are most commonly the result of multiple events.
C)They are usually caused by a single careless person.
D)A faulty system will not contribute to medication errors.

Question 20

In 1994,the World Health Organization (WHO)released recommendations for rational prescribing that included all of the following recommendations except:

A)Use only brand (trade)name drugs.
B)Ensure medication choices are safe and effective for the defined problem.
C)Monitor the results of treatment.
D)Stop the use of a drug when the treatment period is complete.

Question 21

Which of the following statements is false regarding prescriptions?

A)Prescriptions for schedule II controlled substances may be refilled.
B)Medications are dispensed in childproof containers unless otherwise noted.
C)The date of the prescription is required on all prescriptions.
D)The prescriber's DEA number should be included when necessary.

Question 22

A patient presents with a self-diagnosed condition and believes she needs a medication she has seen on television.Which response to this patient would be most inappropriate?

A)Explaining the side effects of the requested drug
B)Explaining the appropriateness of the requested drug
C)Explaining the risks and benefits of the requested drug
D)Prescribing the medication to the patient without further discussion,as this is what she wants

Question 23

Medication adherence can be greatly improved by educating a patient about:

A)The pharmacokinetics of the drug.
B)All possible side effects listed by the manufacturer.
C)Special instructions on using the medication.
D)The mechanism of action of the drug.

Question 24

Which abbreviation indicates that three drops should be placed in both ears?

A)Three gtt as
B)Three gtt ad
C)Three gtt au
D)Three gtt od

Question 25

Which statement regarding risk factors for adverse effects of medications is true?

A)Very old patients are at increased risk for adverse outcomes.
B)Pediatric patients experience fewer adverse effects than adults.
C)Patients with chronic illnesses on long-term medications are less prone to have adverse drug events.
D)Patients with mental illness have the same risk of adverse drug effects as the general population.

Question 26

Pregnancy safety category C is best described by:

A)Adequate and well-controlled studies have indicated no risk to a fetus in the first trimester of pregnancy and have produced no evidence of risk in later trimesters.
B)Animal studies have indicated no risk to a fetus;however,no well-controlled studies in pregnant women have been conducted.
C)Animal studies have indicated adverse effects on a fetus;however,no well-controlled studies in humans have been conducted.
D)Positive human fetal risk has been reported in investigational or marketing experience or human studies.

Question 27

Which question should a prescriber ask himself or herself before prescribing a drug?

A)Have I weighed all the risks and benefits?
B)Have I given the patient the medication they asked for?
C)Have I informed the patient of all possible side effects as written by the manufacturer?
D)Have I prescribed the newest drug on the market?

Question 28

Which statement is false regarding prescribing medications to pregnant patients?

A)Teratogenicity varies between patients.
B)Susceptibility among humans varies widely.
C)All teratogenic agents cause malformations with every exposure.
D)Damage caused by teratogenic agents is usually a function of dosage,length of exposure,and a window of opportunity.

Question 29

Which of the following should a prescriber do when possible?

A)Prescribe the least expensive but most effective medication.
B)Prescribe the medication chosen by the patient.
C)Prescribe the most efficacious drug despite the side effect profile.
D)Prescribe without fully disclosing all side effects to spare the patient any distress.

Question 30

A prescriber wants a patient to receive the Dilantin brand and does not wish to substitute with the generic,phenytoin.Which of the following statements is false regarding generic and brand substitution?

A)The Drug Substitution Law allows a pharmacist to substitute a generic bioequivalent drug for one stated on a prescription.
B)A prescriber can write "DAW," meaning "dispense as written," to ensure that a patient receives the brand name drug.
C)The FDA regulates and reports on bioequivalence testing for generic drugs.
D)All brand drugs can be switched to generic without biologically significant fluctuations.

Question 31

The American Medical Association publishes principles of conservative prescribing.These principles include all of the following except:

A)Treat underlying disease,not just symptoms.
B)Start with one drug at a time when possible.
C)Use new drugs as soon as they are approved by the FDA.
D)Be aware of potential adverse effects.

Question 32

Which abbreviation indicates that a patient should take their medication at bedtime?

A)HS
B)BID
C)AC
D)PRN

Question 33

A patient is instructed to apply one drop to each eye.Which abbreviation for these instructions is accurate?

A)One gtt ou
B)One gr ad
C)One gtt au
D)One gtt od

Question 34

Which statement regarding appropriate prescribing practices is false?

A)Directions such as "as directed" should be avoided.
B)The quantity of controlled substance to be dispensed should be written as a word;for example,"thirty" (30).
C)Roman numerals are preferred over Arabic numbers.
D)In the case of liquid medication or suspension,the dispensing can be in milliliters (ml).

Question 35

Which of the following examples could be the subscription component on a prescription?

A)Dispense # 100 ml
B)John Smith,RPA-C,License number
C)Patient name and address
D)Take 5 ml PO twice daily for 10 days

Question 36

Which pregnancy category indicates that the risks of using a drug outweigh the benefits and,therefore,that drugs in this category should not be used by pregnant women?

A)Category A
B)Category C
C)Category X
D)Category D

Question 37

Principles of conscientious prescribing include all of the following except:

A)Consideration of the cost of medications and drug formularies.
B)Consideration of the patient's ability to adhere to the prescribed medication regimen.
C)Consideration of comorbidities and polypharmacy.
D)Preference for brand name drugs for all prescribed medications.

Question 38

Which statement regarding the current evidence on the use of electronic medical records is false?

A)They can prevent transcription errors.
B)They eliminate issues caused by illegible handwriting.
C)They improve response time and accuracy.
D)They reduce the number of medication errors in facilities with computerized systems when compared to those without such a system.

Question 39

Which abbreviation indicates that a medication should be taken by mouth twice daily?

A)po BID
B)po ac
C)po qd
D)po TIW