Deck 11: Eyes

Question 1

An increased level of lysozyme in the tears will occur normally during which life stage?

A) Adolescence
B) Childhood
C) Infancy
D) Pregnancy

Answer 1

Pregnancy

Question 2

When measuring visual acuity, you are assessing cranial nerve:

A) I.
B) II.
C) IV.
D) VI.

Answer 2

II.

Question 3

Periorbital edema is:

A) a sign of abnormality.
B) expected with aging.
C) more common in males.
D) present in children.

Answer 3

a sign of abnormality.

Question 4

Xanthelasma may suggest that the patient has an abnormality of:

A) lipid metabolism.
B) cognitive function.
C) renal metabolism.
D) bone marrow function.

Question 5

Mrs. Alden is a 29-year-old pregnant patient in her third trimester. She tells you that her vision has been a little blurred, and she thinks she needs to get new contact lenses. You should advise her to:

A) get new lenses as soon as possible to avoid complications.
B) wait until several weeks after delivery to get new lenses.
C) go to the nearest emergency department for evaluation.
D) change her diet to include more yellow vegetables.

Question 6

The sensory network of the eye is the:

A) cornea.
B) iris.
C) pupil.
D) retina.

Question 7

The Rosenbaum card is used to measure:

A) distance perception.
B) near vision.
C) peripheral distortion.
D) the ability to identify colors.

Question 8

Contraction or relaxation of the ciliary body:

A) allows voluntary blinking.
B) changes lens thickness.
C) regulates peripheral vision.
D) sends light impulses to the brain.

Question 9

Contraction of which eye structure controls the amount of light that reaches the retina?

A) Retina
B) Iris
C) Sclera
D) Lens

Question 10

Measurement of near vision should be done:

A) in each eye separately.
B) with the head at a 45-degree angle.
C) with the use of primary colors.
D) with the use of the Snellen chart.

Question 11

Which of the following findings, when seen in the infant, is ominous?

A) Difficulty tracking objects with the eyes
B) Appearing to have better peripheral than central vision
C) Blinking when bright light is directed at the face
D) White pupils on photographs

Question 12

The criterion for determining the adequacy of a patient's visual field is:

A) the ability to discriminate primary colors.
B) the ability to discriminate details.
C) correspondence with the visual field of the examiner.
D) distance vision equal to that of an average person.

Question 13

Mr. C's visual acuity is 20/50. This means that he:

A) can see 50% of what the average person sees at 20 feet.
B) has perfect vision when tested at 50 feet.
C) can see 20% of the letters on the chart's 20/50 line.
D) can read letters while standing 20 feet from the chart that the average person could read at 50 feet.

Question 14

Tears flow over the cornea and drain via the lacrimal sac into the:

A) anterior fossa.
B) posterior pharynx.
C) nasal meatus.
D) thyroglossal duct.

Question 15

Retinal hemorrhages in an infant require investigation for:

A) retinoblastoma.
B) retrolental fibroplasia.
C) pituitary tumor.
D) child abuse.

Question 16

Which of the following is a relatively benign condition that may occur during pregnancy or labor?

A) Macular degeneration
B) Papilledema
C) Subconjunctival hemorrhage
D) Cupping of the optic disc

Question 17

Peripheral vision can be estimated by means of which test?

A) Confrontation
B) Pupillary reaction
C) Accommodation
D) Snellen E chart

Question 18

A condition that typically develops by the age of 45 years is:

A) presbyopia.
B) hyperopia.
C) myopia.
D) astigmatism.

Question 19

When does the lens usually become more rigid while the ciliary muscle of the iris becomes weaker?

A) At 25 years of age
B) Around 35 years of age
C) Around 45 years of age
D) After 65 years of age

Question 20

Mrs. S. is a 69-year-old woman who presents for a physical examination. On inspection of her eyes, you note that the left upper eyelid droops, covering more of the iris than does the right. This is recorded as:

A) exophthalmos on the right.
B) ptosis on the left.
C) nystagmus on the left.
D) astigmatism on the right.

Question 21

You observe pupillary response as the patient looks at a distant object and then at an object held 10 cm from the bridge of the nose. You are assessing for:

A) confrontation reaction.
B) accommodation.
C) pupillary light reflex.
D) nystagmus.

Question 22

Inspection of the tarsal conjunctiva should be performed:

A) with every eye examination.
B) in eye examinations in patients older than 45 years.
C) when a foreign body may be present.
D) for the patient with glaucoma.

Question 23

Entropion implies that the lower eyelid is:

A) drooping.
B) everted.
C) edematous.
D) turned inward.

Question 24

The unit of measurement for describing lesion size and location on the fundus is the:

A) disc diameter.
B) macular diameter.
C) pupillary diameter.
D) centimeter.

Question 25

What is the name of the condition in which the eyelid is turned away, or everted, from the globe?

A) Ectropion
B) Entropion
C) Exophthalmos
D) Ptosis

Question 26

A pterygium is more common in people heavily exposed to:

A) high altitudes.
B) tuberculosis.
C) ultraviolet light.
D) cigarette smoke.

Question 27

Ptosis may be secondary to:

A) paresis of a branch of cranial nerve III.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) psoriasis.
D) blepharitis.

Question 28

An abnormal growth of conjunctiva extending over the cornea from the limbus is known as:

A) a cataract.
B) erythematous.
C) glaucoma.
D) a pterygium.

Question 29

Mr. Morris is a 38-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with complaints of allergies. An allergy can cause the conjunctiva to have a:

A) cobblestone pattern.
B) dry surface.
C) subconjunctival hemorrhage.
D) rust-colored pigment.

Question 30

When inspecting the region of the lacrimal gland, palpate:

A) the lower orbital rim, near the inner canthus.
B) in the area between the arch of the eyebrow and upper lid.
C) beneath the lower lid, adjacent to the inner canthus.
D) adjacent to the lateral aspect of the eye, just beneath the upper lid.

Question 31

Mydriasis is an accompaniment of:

A) coma.
B) diabetes.
C) hyperopia.
D) astigmatism.

Question 32

A condition in which the eyelids do not completely meet to cover the globe is called:

A) glaucoma.
B) lagophthalmos.
C) exophthalmos.
D) hordeolum.

Question 33

Ask the patient to look directly at the light of the ophthalmoscope when you are ready to examine the:

A) retina.
B) optic disc.
C) retinal vessels.
D) macula.

Question 34

If a patient has early papilledema, using an ophthalmoscope, the examiner will be able to detect:

A) dilated retinal veins.
B) retinal vein pulsations.
C) sharply defined optic discs.
D) visual defects.

Question 35

Mr. Brown was admitted from the emergency department, and you are completing his physical examination. His pupils are 2 mm bilaterally, and you notice that they fail to dilate when the penlight is moved away. This is characteristic in patients who are or have been:

A) in a coma.
B) taking sympathomimetic drugs (cocaine).
C) taking opioid drugs (morphine).
D) treated for head trauma.

Question 36

When testing corneal sensitivity controlled by cranial nerve V, you should expect the patient to respond by:

A) brisk blinking.
B) copious tearing.
C) pupil dilation.
D) reflex smiling.

Question 37

The inequality of pupillary size is called:

A) mydriasis.
B) diopter
C) ptosis.
D) anisocoria.

Question 38

Mr. Older is a 40-year-old patient who presents to the office for a follow-up eye examination after the diagnosis of myopia. To see retinal details in a myopic patient, you will need to:

A) adjust your ophthalmoscope into the plus lens.
B) move your ophthalmoscope backward.
C) move your hand farther forward.
D) turn your ophthalmoscope to a minus lens.

Question 39

Opacities of the red reflex may indicate the presence of:

A) hypertension.
B) hydrocephalus.
C) cataracts.
D) myopia.

Question 40

Examination to assess for extraocular muscle imbalance is conducted by:

A) comparing pupillary responses to different shapes.
B) having the patient follow your finger through planes.
C) inspecting slightly closed lids for fasciculations.
D) transilluminating the cornea with tangential light.

Question 41

Changes seen in proliferative diabetic retinopathy are the result of:

A) anoxic stimulation.
B) macular damage.
C) papilledema.
D) minute hemorrhages.

Question 42

Cupping of the optic disc may be a result of:

A) migraine headaches.
B) diabetes.
C) glaucoma.
D) dehydration

Question 43

When there is an imbalance found with the corneal light test, you should then perform the ______________ test.

Question 44

The most common cause of exophthalmos is _______________.

Question 45

Mrs. Jones brings her infant son in for a routine physical examination. She asks you, as the examiner, the age at which infants usually develop the ability to distinguish color. You explain that infants are first able to distinguish color at the age of ___ months.

Question 46

Which maneuver can be done to reduce the systemic absorption of cycloplegic and mydriatic agents when examining a pregnant woman if the examination is mandatory?

A) Have the woman keep her eyes closed for several minutes.
B) Instill half the usual dosage.
C) Keep the patient supine, with her head turned and flexed.
D) Use nasolacrimal occlusion after instillation.

Question 47

The Keith-Wagner-Barker system group IV is characterized by the development of:

A) increased light reflex in the arterioles.
B) crossing defects.
C) cotton wool spots.
D) papilledema.

Question 48

To differentiate between infants who have strabismus and those who have pseudostrabismus, use the:

A) confrontation test.
B) corneal light reflex.
C) E chart.
D) Amsler grid.

Question 49

White specks scattered in a linear pattern around the entire circumference of the iris are called:

A) drusen bodies.
B) cotton wool spots.
C) rust spots.
D) Brushfield spots.

Question 50

Which of the following may be suggestive of Down syndrome?

A) Drusen bodies
B) Papilledema
C) Narrow palpebral fissures
D) Prominent epicanthal folds

Question 51

You are attempting to examine the eyes of a newborn. To facilitate eye opening, you would first:

A) dim the room lights.
B) elicit pain.
C) place him in the supine position.
D) shine the penlight in his or her eyes.

Question 52

Drusen bodies are most commonly a consequence of:

A) glaucoma.
B) aging.
C) presbyopia.
D) papilledema.

Question 53

Horner syndrome is manifested by:

A) proptosis and contralateral mydriasis.
B) excessive watering of the eyes.
C) blurring of vision when glucose levels fall.
D) ipsilateral miosis and mild ptosis.

Question 54

Bone spicule pigmentation is a hallmark of:

A) chorioretinal pigmentosa.
B) cytomegalovirus infection.
C) lipemia retinalis.
D) retinitis pigmentosa.

Question 55

Cotton wool spots are most closely associated with:

A) glaucoma.
B) normal aging processes.
C) hypertension.
D) eye trauma.

Question 56

Dot hemorrhages, or microaneurysms, in the retina and the presence of hard and soft exudates are most commonly seen in those with:

A) Down syndrome.
B) diabetic retinopathy.
C) systemic lupus.
D) glaucoma.

Question 57

The Snellen E chart is appropriate for initial measurement of visual acuity in a child of age __ years.

Question 58

When drusen bodies are noted to be increasing in number or in intensity of color, the patient should be further evaluated with a(n):

A) Amsler grid.
B) Snellen E chart.
C) litmus test.
D) confrontation test.

Question 59

Episcleritis may indicate:

A) lipid abnormalities.
B) an autoimmune disorder.
C) an anaphylactoid reaction.
D) severe anemia.

Question 60

Term infants have a visual acuity of about____/_____.