Deck 4: Physical Development

Question 1

What part of the brain becomes the focus of developmental processes during the 10-to-12-year-old neurological growth spurt?

A) medulla
B) midbrain
C) frontal lobes
D) parietal lobes
E) brainstem

Answer 1

C

Question 2

At what age are the frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex the focus of development?

A) 17 years
B) 9 years
C) 6 years
D) 5 months
E) 1 month

Answer 2

A

Question 3

The developmental process that takes place in the nervous system after birth primarily involves the creation of

A) neurons.
B) glial cells.
C) synapses.
D) the frontal lobes.
E) the cerebellum.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Evidence of goal-directed planning occurs at the same time as the

A) slowing of development at age 2.
B) 10-12-year-old growth spurt.
C) change to puberty.
D) ability to walk.
E) 20-month growth spurt.

Question 5

Which of the following statements about neurological development is accurate?

A) There is a major growth spurt at four years of age.
B) Before five months of age, growth spurts occur every three months.
C) As the infant grows older, periods of growth become shorter.
D) Between ages 2 and 4 there are frequent growth spurts.
E) The first major growth spurt occurs at four months.

Question 6

From the standpoint of brain development, which child is most likely to be affected by malnutrition?

A) Jon, a 12-year-old.
B) Karin, a 17-year-old.
C) Jorja, a 5-year-old.
D) Melissa, a 4-month-old.
E) Hanna, a 3-year-old.

Question 7

Synaptogenesis in the first two years after birth results in the ________ of overall brain weight.

A) reduction by a quarter
B) reduction by a half
C) stabilization
D) doubling
E) tripling

Question 8

All of the following statements about selective attention are true EXCEPT

A) it requires myelination of the neurons linking the reticular formation to the frontal lobes.
B) it is stronger in children than adults because they have less to remember.
C) it is the ability to focus cognitive activity on important elements.
D) it increases significantly during middle childhood.
E) it enables a person to ignore distraction.

Question 9

Damien is six months old and cannot speak yet because his ________ is not well-developed.

A) midbrain
B) cortex
C) medulla
D) hypothalamus
E) glial cells

Question 10

The development of sheaths around individual axons is called

A) myelination.
B) ossification.
C) dendritic arbor expansion.
D) pruning.
E) synaptogenesis.

Question 11

Research on pruning has shown all of the following to be true EXCEPT that

A) pathways that are not used are pruned.
B) pruning makes the system more efficient.
C) it is important for adults to talk to babies.
D) the pruning process is heavily dependent on experience.
E) pruning begins at six years of age.

Question 12

The ________ regulate(s) such basic tasks as attention, sleeping, waking, and elimination.

A) medulla and midbrain
B) left hemisphere
C) cortex and spinal cord
D) convoluted gray matter
E) synapses

Question 13

Myelination is most rapid

A) at birth.
B) during the first two years after birth.
C) during the preschool years.
D) between ages 3 and 5.
E) at puberty.

Question 14

Sensory, motor, and intellectual functions are linked in the

A) association areas.
B) medulla.
C) midbrain.
D) reticular formation.
E) cerebellum.

Question 15

The purpose of myelination is to

A) improve the pruning function.
B) provide close connections between neurons.
C) increase programmed plasticity of the brain.
D) decrease neural functioning.
E) improve conductivity of the nerve.

Question 16

Which of the following individuals would be expected to have the densest set of dendrites and synapses?

A) one-year old Sam
B) Sam's five-year-old sister
C) Sam's mother
D) Sam's father
E) Sam's teenage brother

Question 17

Renaldo is four years old and is experiencing a neurological growth spurt. What skill will he be attaining?

A) evidence of some goal-directed planning
B) fluency in speaking and understanding language
C) improvements in eye-hand coordination
D) improvements in memory function
E) motor coordination

Question 18

The ________ is the convoluted gray matter that is involved in perception, body movement, and language.

A) medulla
B) midbrain
C) brainstem
D) cortex
E) hypothalamus

Question 19

The pattern of neurological development of the brain

A) is smooth and continuous.
B) involves the production of new glial cells.
C) involves spurts of growth followed by stability.
D) involves massive dendritic growth between five and ten years of age.
E) is irregular and mostly unpredictable.

Question 20

The part of the brain responsible for paying attention is the

A) medulla.
B) frontal lobes.
C) reticular formation.
D) midbrain.
E) cerebellum.

Question 21

Across early and middle childhood, spatial perception

A) is not linked to lateralization.
B) is lateralized to the left hemisphere of the brain.
C) does not show any development.
D) is lateralized to the right hemisphere of the brain.
E) is fully developed and operational.

Question 22

Will is able to put information into long-term memory whenever he needs to. What part of the brain allows this process to occur?

A) midbrain
B) hypothalamus
C) medulla
D) hippocampus
E) association areas.

Question 23

One-year-old Charlie has ________ bones in his wrist, but as an adult he will have ________ bones in his wrist.

A) one; three
B) three; six
C) three; nine
D) nine; twelve
E) six; twelve

Question 24

What percent of humans have a right brain dominance pattern?

A) 95
B) 80
C) 40
D) 15
E) 5

Question 25

Lateralization of spatial perception may be related to all of the following EXCEPT

A) learning math concepts.
B) performance in conservation tasks.
C) understanding another's right or left.
D) learning problem solving strategies.
E) physical coordination.

Question 26

Research on spatial cognition indicates that

A) girls' play preferences offer them an advantage in spatial cognition.
B) video games decrease mental rotation abilities.
C) play hampers the development of spatial skills.
D) boys score higher than girls on spatial cognition tasks.
E) it is not influenced by experience.

Question 27

Due to lateralization, if you want to facilitate babies' language processing, you should speak

A) in their left ear.
B) in their right ear.
C) quietly.
D) loudly.
E) rapidly.

Question 28

The fontanels do all of the following EXCEPT

A) allow the head to be compressed without injury during the birth process.
B) give the brain room to grow.
C) replace the bones of the skull by about the end of the first year.
D) separate the bones of the newborn's skull.
E) fill in with bone by 12 to 18 months.

Question 29

The left and right hemispheres of the brain communicate through the

A) association cortex.
B) reticular formation.
C) frontal lobes.
D) corpus callosum.
E) hippocampus.

Question 30

When does handedness first become well established?

A) at birth
B) before the first birthday
C) in the preschool years
D) in the teen years
E) at adulthood

Question 31

Lucy has added 12 inches to her length and tripled her body weight. How old is she?

A) one year old
B) two years old
C) four years old
D) six years old
E) eleven years old

Question 32

Carline has developed the ability to pay attention to something even when distractions are present. Carline has developed

A) lateralization.
B) myelination.
C) long term memory.
D) right brain dominance.
E) selective attention.

Question 33

Both in ancient and modern populations, there are ________ percent right handed, ________ percent left handed, and ________ percent ambidextrous people.

A) 3; 14; 83
B) 10; 22; 68
C) 83; 14; 3
D) 80; 10; 10
E) 68; 22; 10

Question 34

What part of the brain is involved in the transfer of information to long term memory?

A) cerebellum
B) cortex
C) medulla
D) midbrain
E) hippocampus

Question 35

There are four different phases in the development of height in children. Which phases have the most rapid growth?

A) 1, 2, and 3
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 3 and 4
E) 2, 3, and 4

Question 36

The ability to infer rules from and make predictions about the movement of objects in space is

A) spatial perception.
B) right-left orientation.
C) spatial cognition.
D) lateralization.
E) cognitive perception.

Question 37

All of the following statements about brain lateralization are accurate EXCEPT

A) full lateralization of language occurs near the end of early childhood.
B) some degree of lateralization is present in the human fetus.
C) hemispheric specialization is based solely on personality type.
D) fetuses and adults listen to language with the right ear.
E) most people who are not left-brain dominant have mixed dominance.

Question 38

LiAnn is guiding her friend toward a hidden prize. She tells her friend "it is on your right." LiAnn is at least

A) one year old.
B) three years old.
C) five years old.
D) six years old.
E) eight years old.

Question 39

The process of functional specialization of the left and right hemispheres of the cerebral cortex is called

A) attunement.
B) lateralization.
C) myelination.
D) synaptogenesis.
E) association.

Question 40

Which of the following statements about changes in size and shape is accurate?

A) In a toddler, the head is 1/10 of the entire body length.
B) Children's hands reach adult size in the preschool years.
C) There is a specific point when adolescents lose coordination.
D) The adolescent growth spurt lasts about one year.
E) In an adult, the head is about 1/8 to 1/10 of total height.

Question 41

Among girls in industrialized countries today, menarche occurs, on average, between the ages of _______ and _________.

A) 11.5 and 12.5.
B) 12.5 and 13.5.
C) 10 and 11.5.
D) 10.5 and 12.
E) 12 and 14.

Question 42

In industrialized countries, 95 percent of all girls experience menarche between the ages of

A) 12 and 13.
B) 12 and 14.
C) 10 and 12.
D) 11 and 15.
E) 12 and 16.

Question 43

All of the following are secreted by the pituitary EXCEPT

A) gonadotrophic hormones.
B) GH.
C) TSH.
D) ACTH.
E) MRI.

Question 44

The thyroid gland secretes thyroxine which influences

A) pubertal changes, skeletal and muscular maturity.
B) physical maturation, growth spurt, and pubic hair development.
C) development of the sex organs and changes in bones, muscles, and organs.
D) normal brain development and growth rate.
E) the secretion of testosterone, which is crucial in the formation of male genitals prenatally.

Question 45

A primary sex characteristic in females is the development of

A) the uterus.
B) pubic hair.
C) breasts.
D) underarm hair.
E) a lower voice.

Question 46

The average age of menarche ________ from 1840 to the 1950s among European populations.

A) decreased steadily
B) increased steadily
C) stayed about the same
D) first rose, then declined
E) first declined, then rose

Question 47

During and after puberty, proportions of

A) fat and muscle weight rise in both boys and girls.
B) fat rise and muscle weight declines in girls.
C) muscle weight increases and fat decreases in both boys and girls.
D) fat and muscle weight increase in boys.
E) fat and muscle weight do not change.

Question 48

Mike is six years old. He should be able to do all of the following EXCEPT

A) run well.
B) ride a two-wheel bike.
C) cut accurately with scissors.
D) jump and climb.
E) skip.

Question 49

Which two glands are primarily responsible for the rate of growth?

A) ovaries and testes
B) adrenals and testes
C) thyroid and pituitary
D) pineal and ovaries
E) leydig cells and testes

Question 50

What do the thyroid and pituitary glands have in common?

A) They are only found in females.
B) They do not begin producing hormones until puberty.
C) They are crucial in the formation of testes.
D) They are both influential in overall growth.
E) They both produce estrogen.

Question 51

All of the following are manipulative motor skills EXCEPT

A) crawling.
B) grasping.
C) threading a needle.
D) holding a pencil.
E) picking up objects.

Question 52

Boys have a clear advantage over girls after puberty in all but which of the following?

A) physical strength
B) speed
C) stamina
D) capacity for sustained effort
E) fine motor skills

Question 53

Which of the following children would likely have the most subcutaneous fat?

A) Billy, who is age 8
B) Mindy, who is age 6
C) Hans, who is age 3
D) Carlotta, who is 18 months old
E) Lisa, who is nine months old

Question 54

According to Tanner, the second stage in the sequence of physical development in puberty includes

A) the preadolescent stage.
B) the first signs of pubertal change.
C) intermediate stages of development.
D) the adult characteristics.
E) only secondary sex characteristics.

Question 55

The child's muscle fibers

A) become longer, thicker, and less watery at a fairly steady rate during childhood.
B) are greater in number than needed, and the excess will be pruned with exercise.
C) do not develop according to a proximodistal/cephalocaudal sequence.
D) are fully developed by age 6.
E) increase more rapidly in girls.

Question 56

Girls have more fat tissue than boys in which age periods?

A) at all ages from birth onward
B) from birth to adolescence but not afterward
C) from birth to age two and again in adolescence
D) from puberty onward
E) only in early infancy

Question 57

Because it provides the trigger for release of hormones from other glands, the ________ is sometimes called the ________ gland.

A) thyroid; master
B) adrenal; superior
C) testes; superior
D) ovaries; superior
E) pituitary; master

Question 58

Because of cephalocaudal and proximodistal sequences of ossification,

A) the fontanels close by the end of the first two months.
B) pruning of synapses occurs before expansion of the dendritic arbor.
C) bones in the hands and wrist harden before those in the feet.
D) an individual gradually loses bone calcium.
E) bones in the trunk of the body harden last.

Question 59

Amanda is beginning to develop sexual characteristics. Which of the following is the correct development sequence that she will experience?

A) menarche, early changes in breasts and pubic hair, growth spurt peak
B) early changes in breasts and pubic hair, growth spurt peak, menarche
C) growth spurt peak, early changes in breasts and pubic hair, menarche
D) early changes in breasts and pubic hair, menarche, growth spurt peak
E) final breast changes, growth spurt, menarche

Question 60

Which of the following is an accurate statement about adrenal androgen?

A) It is a masculinizing hormone found only in males.
B) It is produced by the thyroid gland.
C) It is a major growth hormone.
D) It plays a more important role in girls than in boys.
E) It is not produced until adulthood.

Question 61

Which of the following teens is most likely to have had sexual intercourse before age 13?

A) Carlotta, who is Hispanic American
B) Charlene, who is African American
C) Linette, who is white
D) Roberto, who is Hispanic American
E) Leon, who is white

Question 62

Brooks-Gunn found that serious female ballet dancers are more likely to have positive body images if menarche has been

A) earlier than normal.
B) at the normal time.
C) slightly earlier than normal.
D) later than normal.
E) delayed indefinitely.

Question 63

Research on adolescent sexuality in the United States indicates that

A) adolescent pregnancy in the United States is uncommon.
B) adolescent sexual activity has decreased since the 1950s.
C) roughly half of teens are sexually active before they leave high school.
D) the number of teens reporting multiple sexual partners has declined.
E) sexual experience is similar across ethnic groups.

Question 64

Recent longitudinal research on early development indicates that compared to on-time peers, early developing boys

A) get into less trouble in school.
B) are less vulnerable to stressful life experiences.
C) are more likely to be depressed.
D) often occupy leadership roles.
E) have consistently negative body images.

Question 65

Dexter is lean and muscular. He is a(n)

A) ectomorph.
B) endomorph.
C) mesomorph.
D) unimorph.
E) bimorph.

Question 66

Research on sex education has shown the least effective sex education programs

A) include information only.
B) include social skills training.
C) include decision-making skills training.
D) are provided by peers and young adults with personal experience with unplanned pregnancy.
E) are provided by peers and young adults with personal experience with STDs.

Question 67

Among high school students who are sexually active, what percent say they use condoms?

A) 23
B) 32
C) 45
D) 58
E) 63

Question 68

Early developing girls are more likely to do all of the following EXCEPT

A) show consistently more negative body images.
B) be optimistic about their future.
C) engage in delinquent behavior.
D) get into trouble in school.
E) think they are too fat.

Question 69

About half of sexually active 15-19-year-old girls test positive for

A) chlamydia.
B) gonorrhea.
C) HPV.
D) syphilis.
E) herpes.

Question 70

Which of the following teens is most likely to be sexually active?

A) Fred, who is in the ninth grade
B) Maria, who is in the twelfth grade
C) Will, who is in the tenth grade
D) Edith, who is in the eleventh grade
E) Sam, who is in the twelfth grade

Question 71

Adolescent boys who begin sexual activity early are more likely to have experienced all of the following EXCEPT

A) living in a poor neighborhood.
B) parents who strictly monitored their behavior.
C) families who condoned sexual activity.
D) abuse or neglect.
E) lax dating rules.

Question 72

Nora has just experienced menarche. For the next two years, she will ovulate

A) once or twice a year.
B) about 30% of the time.
C) about 55% of the time.
D) regularly.
E) about 75% of the time.

Question 73

The sequence of pubertal changes begins about _____________________ for boys than for girls.

A) one year earlier.
B) two years later.
C) two years earlier.
D) six months earlier.
E) three years later.

Question 74

The annual rate of teenage pregnancy in the United States is about ________ pregnancies per 1,000 teens.

A) 50
B) 40
C) 30
D) 17
E) 4

Question 75

In the year or two after menarche, the irregularity of both ovulation and the timing of menstrual cycles means that

A) it is possible to become pregnant.
B) rhythm contraception is possible.
C) it is not possible to conceive shortly after menarche.
D) no ova are produced during this time.
E) ovulation occurs about ten percent of the time.

Question 76

All of the following are predictors of teenage sexual activity EXCEPT

A) alcohol use.
B) religious affiliation.
C) low interest in school.
D) involvement in sports.
E) extracurricular activities.

Question 77

About 90 percent of high school students report having learned about sexually transmitted diseases

A) from their parents.
B) from their friends.
C) in church.
D) in school.
E) before age 13.

Question 78

Researchers have found that the order of pubertal development

A) is on the same schedule for boys and girls.
B) is highly consistent, but there are individual variations.
C) shows little variability within the sexes, but great variability between the sexes.
D) occurs two years earlier in boys than in girls.
E) is inconsistent and unpredictable.

Question 79

Jessica is going through puberty early and has developed adjustment problems because her body has become

A) endomorphic.
B) a culturally desirable body type.
C) lean and muscular.
D) ectomorphic.
E) thin and wiry.

Question 80

Anne Marie has been sexually active since she was 14 years old. Based on this, it would be most accurate to say that she probably

A) experienced early menarche.
B) was very involved in school.
C) had her first date later than most girls.
D) did not experience any abuse as a child.
E) is a heavy drug user.