Deck 8: Cellular Reproduction: Cells From Cells

Question 1

During telophase, ________.

A)the events of prophase are reversed
B)chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
C)sister chromatids become separate chromosomes
D)the nuclear envelope breaks up

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Which event occurs during anaphase?

A)Sister chromatids become separate chromosomes.
B)Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.
C)The nuclear envelope breaks up.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

What is the chromosome composition of a normal human male?

A)22 autosomes and 2 Y chromosomes
B)44 autosomes and 2 Y chromosomes
C)44 autosomes, 1 X chromosome, and 1 Y chromosome
D)46 autosomes, 1 X chromosome, and 1 Y chromosome

Answer 3

C

Question 4

The structure where sister chromatids are joined is called the ________.

A)centromere
B)spindle
C)centrosome
D)centriole

Question 5

Cytokinesis typically begins during the ________ stage of mitosis.

A)telophase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase

Question 6

What happens during interphase?

A)Chromatin becomes tightly coiled.
B)Chromosome duplication occurs.
C)Sister chromatids separate.
D)The mitotic spindle forms.

Question 7

Eukaryotic cells have their chromosomes packaged in the ________.

A)nucleus
B)centriole
C)Golgi apparatus
D)nucleolus

Question 8

Which activity will help prevent cancer and increase survival?

A)Eat a low-fiber, low-fat diet.
B)Limit exercise.
C)Seek early detection of tumors.
D)Smoke cigarettes.

Question 9

The type of cell division that produces two genetically identical daughter cells is important for all of the following functions EXCEPT ________.

A)growth of a multicellular organism
B)cell replacement
C)production of sperm and eggs
D)asexual reproduction

Question 10

A duplicated chromosome consists of two ________.

A)centromeres
B)centrosomes
C)genomes
D)sister chromatids

Question 11

Chromatin consists of ________.

A)DNA and protein
B)RNA and protein
C)membrane wrapped around RNA
D)membrane wrapped around DNA

Question 12

A(n)________ is an example of an organism that can sometimes reproduce asexually by parthenogenesis.

A)cat
B)human
C)zebra shark
D)mouse

Question 13

The CORRECT sequence of stages of mitosis is ________.

A)prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
B)telophase, prophase, anaphase, metaphase
C)anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase

Question 14

________ is a stage of mitosis.

A)Cytokinesis
B)Telophase
C)Interphase
D)DNA synthesis

Question 15

What happens during prophase?

A)Chromosomes line up on the midline of the cell.
B)The nuclear envelope forms.
C)Sister chromatids separate.
D)The mitotic spindle begins to form.

Question 16

A correct comparison between a benign and a malignant tumor is that ________.

A)benign tumors are composed of cancer cells; malignant tumors are not
B)benign tumors are not the result of a failure of a cell cycle control system; malignant tumors are
C)benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors do
D)benign tumors do not form lumps; malignant tumors do form lumps

Question 17

The cells that result from the mitotic cell cycle can be described as ________.

A)four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
B)two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information
C)two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
D)four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information

Question 18

Homologous chromosomes ________.

A)carry genes controlling the same inherited characteristics
B)are a set of chromosomes received from one parent during sexual reproduction
C)carry the same versions of all genes

Question 19

A cell that completed the cell cycle without undergoing cytokinesis would ________.

A)have less genetic material than it started with
B)not have completed anaphase
C)have its chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cell
D)have two nuclei

Question 20

During metaphase, ________.

A)the nuclear envelope breaks up
B)sister chromatids move near the poles
C)centrosomes divide
D)chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell

Question 21

In meiosis, how does prophase I differ from prophase II?

A)During prophase I there is one diploid cell; during prophase II there are two haploid cells.
B)During prophase I chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell; during prophase II the chromosomes line up double file in the middle of the cell.
C)During prophase I the chromosomes coil up; the chromosomes are not coiled up during prophase II.
D)In prophase I the sister chromatids are attached; in prophase II the sister chromatids are separated.

Question 22

During anaphase I ________.

A)half of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole along with half of the chromosomes inherited from the father
B)sister chromatids separate and the daughter chromosomes migrate to opposite poles
C)homologous chromosomes randomly separate and migrate to opposite poles
D)all of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole of the cell, and all of the chromosomes inherited from the father go to the other pole

Question 23

In sexual reproduction in humans ________.

A)haploid sperm fertilizes a haploid egg cell
B)a haploid individual is produced
C)an individual with 44 chromosomes is produced
D)two diploid gametes are combined to produce a zygote

Question 24

One difference between mitosis and meiosis is that mitosis ________.

A)produces cells genetically identical to the parent cell, but meiosis does not
B)produces more daughter cells for each division than meiosis
C)produces haploid cells, but meiosis produces diploid cells
D)requires only one parent cell, but meiosis requires two parent cells

Question 25

Anaphase II is essentially the same as mitotic anaphase except that in anaphase II ________ and in mitotic anaphase ________.

A)the cells are diploid; the cells are haploid
B)chromosomes line up double file in the middle of the cell; chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell
C)crossing over occurs; crossing over does not occur
D)the cells are haploid and sister chromatids separate; the cells have the same number of chromosomes as the original cell and sister chromatids separate

Question 26

Which characteristic seen in prophase I does NOT occur in prophase II?

A)Chromosomes move to the middle of the cell.
B)Spindle formation occurs.
C)The number of chromosomes doubles.
D)Crossing over occurs.

Question 27

Chromosomes that do NOT determine the sex of an individual are called ________.

A)homologous chromosomes
B)nonhomologous chromosomes
C)sex chromosomes
D)autosomes

Question 28

For a species with four pairs of chromosomes, ________ chromosome combinations are possible.

A)4
B)8
C)16
D)20

Question 29

Genetic variation is accomplished by all but one of the following. Choose the EXCEPTION.

A)the events of meiosis I
B)crossing over
C)independent assortment
D)the events of meiosis II

Question 30

How many chromosomes does an individual with Turner syndrome have?

A)2n + 1
B)n + 1
C)2n − 1
D)n − 1

Question 31

Crossing over during prophase I results in ________.

A)nondisjunction
B)reciprocal translocation
C)duplication
D)genetic recombination

Question 32

What is the chromosome composition of a normal human female?

A)22 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes
B)44 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes
C)44 autosomes, 1 X chromosome, and 1 Y chromosome
D)46 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes

Question 33

How much genetic material is present in a cell during prophase I compared to a cell that has completed meiosis II?

A)one-quarter as much
B)four times as much
C)one-half as much
D)twice as much

Question 34

Nondisjunction might result in gametes with the chromosome numbers ________.

A)n + 1 or n − 1
B)2n + 1 or 2n − 1
C)2n + 1 or n − 1

Question 35

Bdelloid rotifers appear to reproduce only asexually. Which outcome, if found in this group, would demonstrate that sexual reproduction may occur?

A)female rotifers with eggs
B)significant differences of two different alleles among different populations (one population having mostly allele A and one having mostly a)
C)cells in which meiosis occurs
D)related groups (not bdelloid rotifers)which reproduce both sexually and asexually

Question 36

Which type of reproduction is most adaptive in a rapidly changing environment with many different parasitic diseases present?

A)asexual reproduction, because the currently successful genotypes can reproduce quickly
B)asexual reproduction, because asexual reproduction uses less energy, which leaves more for each individual to adapt to the changing environment
C)sexual reproduction, because the diversity of genotypes increases the likelihood that there is one which can survive in a new environment
D)sexual reproduction, because this type of reproduction allows the production of a greater number of offspring, thus providing more individuals to take advantage of any environmental challenges presented

Question 37

A karyotype (a display of the chromosomes in a cell)is often used to look for genetic disorders. Karyotype results would not be useful to determine ________.

A)sex
B)Down syndrome
C)Turner syndrome
D)eye color

Question 38

Upon completion of telophase I and cytokinesis in meiosis, there is(are)________ cell(s).

A)four haploid
B)two diploid
C)two haploid
D)one diploid

Question 39

During metaphase I, ________.

A)crossing over occurs
B)homologous chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
C)the nuclear envelope breaks up
D)sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles

Question 40

Examine the figure below. Nucleosomes are made of ________.

A)RNA and protein
B)DNA and no protein
C)DNA and histone proteins

Question 41

What is the chromosome number found in humans cells if meiosis I is completed normally?

A)46 autosomes
B)43 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes
C)22 autosomes and a sex chromosome
D)44 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes

Question 42

This diagram of the human life cycle shows that ________.

A)meiosis produces a diploid zygote
B)meiosis produces haploid sperm and egg cells
C)fertilization produces a haploid zygote
D)a diploid zygote undergoes meiosis to produce an adult human

Question 43

What best explains the chromosome number of the resulting cell if a cell that had completed only meiosis I were fertilized by a normal sperm?

A)Both cells would be haploid, so the chromosome number of the resulting cell would be diploid.
B)This would be a diploid cell being fertilized by a haploid cell, so the chromosome number would be triploid.
C)At fertilization the sister chromatids in the sperm would separate, so the number would be triploid.
D)Both cells would be haploid, so the resulting cell would also be haploid.

Question 44

If organisms reproduced sexually but without meiosis, what would result?

A)The resulting organisms would be haploid.
B)The gametes would be haploid.
C)The chromosome number would double each generation.
D)The zygote would be unable to divide.

Question 45

With respect to her sex chromosomes, Amanda would be designated as ________.

A)XYY
B)XO
C)XOY
D)XX

Question 46

Homologous chromosomes ________.

A)differ in shape
B)have different genes
C)pair-up during mitosis
D)separate at meiosis I

Question 47

There is evidence of a phenomenon called quorum sensing in rotifers. Under certain conditions, a chemical released by females who usually reproduce asexually results in males being produced. The presence of these males allows sexual reproduction. What conditions would most likely lead to a switch to sexual reproduction?

A)not enough individuals in the population
B)too many individuals in the population
C)a change in the environment
D)too many males

Question 48

What percentage of Amanda's gametes would likely have the normal number of chromosomes?

A)zero
B)100 percent
C)50 percent
D)25 percent

Question 49

If the diagnosis had discovered that some, but not all, of Amanda's somatic (body, not gamete)cells had only one X chromosome, this could indicate that an error occurred ________.

A)during mitosis, leading to the sperm or egg that came together to form Amanda
B)during meiosis in the first cell division of the original cell that was Amanda (the zygote)
C)during meiosis, which occurred in Amanda's ovaries
D)during mitosis, which occurred at a multicellular stage of Amanda's development

Question 50

If the cleavage furrow or cell plate shown in the figure formed nearer one pole of the dividing cell rather than at the midline, what would be the predicted result?

A)cytokinesis would never be completed
B)the resulting cells would be much smaller than usual
C)the resulting cells would be very different in size
D)chromosomes could not separate properly

Question 51

The 2n number for the cell depicted here is ________.

A)one
B)two
C)four
D)eight

Question 52

When in mitosis are there twice as many chromatids compared to the original cell's chromosomes?

A)prophase
B)anaphase
C)telophase
D)G1 phase

Question 53

The above figure shows that ________.

A)meiosis results in the formation of four haploid daughter cells
B)fertilization results in four haploid daughter cells
C)the human 2n number is 4
D)meiosis forms diploid gametes

Question 54

The karyotype above shows ________.

A)abnormal sex chromosomes
B)trisomy 21, a cause of Klinefelter syndrome
C)Turner syndrome
D)trisomy 21, a cause of Down syndrome

Question 55

A promising new type of cancer treatment, immunotherapy, may involve all but one of these treatments. Choose the EXCEPTION.

A)increasing the effectiveness of the body's own immune response to cancer cells
B)creating proteins that kill cancer cells and giving them to the cancer patient
C)injecting molecules harvested from other cured cancer patients into the patient with cancer

Question 56

Please read this paragraph and answer the following questions.
Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. The doctor ordered a karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty.
Amanda's abnormal number of sex chromosomes resulted from ________.

A)independent assortment of chromosomes
B)crossing over
C)nondisjunction
D)random fertilization

Question 57

Which of these mistakes would be evident in the karyotype shown?

A)a failure of cytokinesis after meiosis I in gamete formation
B)a nondisjunction in meiosis II in gamete formation
C)crossing over in meiosis I in gamete formation
D)fertilization by two sperm in zygote formation

Question 58

As shown in the accompanying figure, plant cell cytokinesis differs from animal cell cytokinesis because ________.

A)plant cells produce more daughter cells
B)plant cells form a cell plate and animal cells do not
C)animal cells produce more daughter cells
D)animal cells form a cell plate and plant cells do not

Question 59

Consider an organism that usually reproduces sexually. If it produces haploid offspring through the development of unfertilized eggs, what would be the genetic similarity of those offspring to one another?

A)Since the offspring were produced without fertilization, they would all be genetically just alike.
B)If the eggs were products of meiosis, the offspring would NOT be genetically just alike.
C)If the offspring were produced asexually by mitosis, they would not be genetically just alike.
D)Genetic differences can only occur in organisms that are produced through meiosis and fertilization, so they would be genetically just alike