Deck 15: Host Defenses Ii: Specific Immunity and Immunization

Question 1

The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all of the following except _______.

A) a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain
B) two identical heavy polypeptide chains
C) two identical light polypeptide chains
D) disul?de bonds between polypeptide chains
E) four antigen binding sites

Answer 1

four antigen binding sites

Question 2

Lymphocytes _______.

A) possess MHC antigens for recognizing self
B) have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens
C) gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self
D) develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of speci?city
E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer 2

All of these choices are correct.

Question 3

A foreign molecule that causes a speci?c immune response is a/an ______.

A) marker
B) antibody
C) hapten
D) antigen
E) PAMP

Answer 3

antigen

Question 4

The major histocompatibility complex is _______.

A) a set of glycoproteins, called MHC antigens, found on all body cells
B) a set of genes that code for MHC glycoproteins
C) found on the third chromosome
D) located in the thymus gland
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 5

The histocompatibility complex proteins function in _______.

A) B cell maturation
B) antibody proliferation
C) T cell maturation
D) recognition of self

Question 6

Acquired speci?c immunity involves the response of _______.

A) skin barriers
B) B and T lymphocytes
C) lysozyme
D) interferon
E) mucus membranes

Question 7

The embryonic yolk sac, the liver, and the bone marrow are sites where _______.

A) antigen is ?ltered from tissue ?uid
B) antigen is ?ltered from the blood
C) T lymphocytes complete maturation
D) stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes
E) immune responses to antigen occur

Question 8

What type of cells secrete antibodies?

A) Plasma cells
B) Antigen-presenting cells
C) Helper T cells
D) Memory B cells
E) Cytotoxic T cells

Question 9

Class I MHC genes code for _______.

A) receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells
B) all HLA antigens
C) self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes
D) certain secreted complement components

Question 10

Plasma cells _______.

A) secrete antibodies
B) directly destroy target cells
C) suppress immune reactions
D) activate B cells and other T cells
E) function in allergic reactions

Question 11

MHC molecules are found on all of the following cells except ______.

A) red blood cells
B) eosinophils
C) leukocytes
D) islet of Langerhans cells
E) epithelial cells

Question 12

Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions _______.

A) are the result of genetic expression
B) function in recognition of self molecules
C) receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system
D) aid in cellular development
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 13

Class II MHC genes code for _______.

A) certain secreted complement components
B) self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes
C) all HLA antigens
D) receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 14

Properties of effective antigens include all of the following except _______.

A) they are foreign to the immune system
B) they have molecular complexity
C) they are large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000
D) they are large polymers made up of repeating subunits
E) they are cells or large, complex molecules

Question 15

Helper T cells _______.

A) secrete antibodies
B) suppress immune reactions
C) function in allergic reactions
D) directly destroy target cells
E) activate B cells and other T cells

Question 16

The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly diversi?ed from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the _______ region.

A) joining
B) light
C) hinge
D) constant
E) variable

Question 17

The antibody-secreting progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called _______.

A) antibodies
B) bursa cells
C) plasma cells
D) sensitized T cells
E) activated macrophages

Question 18

Destruction of lymphocytes with self-speci?city is called _______.

A) proliferation
B) clonal selection
C) hypersensitivity
D) clonal deletion
E) differentiation

Question 19

Lymphocyte maturation involves _______.

A) hormonal signals that initiate development
B) B cells maturing in bone marrow sites
C) T cells maturing in the thymus
D) release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 20

Which of the following is not true of the antigen-independent period of lymphocyte development?

A) Lymphocytes with speci?city for self are destroyed.
B) Mature lymphocytes populate lymphatic organs and encounter antigens.
C) Many lymphocytes with different speci?cities are formed.
D) Random genetic rearrangements occur to produce different surface protein receptors.
E) Lymphocytes form from stem cells in the bone marrow.

Question 21

The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is ______.

A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgG
D) IgD
E) IgE

Question 22

The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an _______.

A) epitope
B) antigen binding site
C) variable region
D) hapten

Question 23

During presentation of APC-bound antigen, macrophages and dendritic cells secrete the cytokine _______, which activates T helper cells.

A) interleukin-1
B) interleukin-2
C) histamine
D) interferon

Question 24

Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule, thereby disrupting their activity?

A) Agglutination
B) Neutralization
C) Opsonization
D) Anamnestic response
E) Complement ?xation

Question 25

Which immunoglobulin class/es can ?x complement?

A) IgM only
B) IgG only
C) IgD only
D) IgM and IgG
E) IgE and IgA

Question 26

Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed ________.

A) variable regions
B) epitopes
C) haptens
D) antigen binding sites

Question 27

Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?

A) Neutralization
B) Anamnestic response
C) Complement ?xation
D) Agglutination
E) Opsonization

Question 28

Antigen presenting cells _______.

A) include dendritic cells
B) include macrophages
C) engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic
D) hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 29

Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called _______.

A) superantigens
B) autoantigens
C) heterophilic antigens
D) allergens

Question 30

Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?

A) Anamnestic response
B) Opsonization
C) Neutralization
D) Agglutination
E) Complement ?xation

Question 31

Superantigens are _______.

A) body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign
B) cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members
C) bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens
D) antigens that evoke allergic reactions

Question 32

The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is ______.

A) IgE
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgD
E) IgA

Question 33

All of the following are characteristics of IgM except _______.

A) it has 10 antigen binding sites
B) it is a dimer
C) it can serve as a B-cell receptor
D) it is the ?rst class synthesized by a plasma cell
E) it contains a central J chain

Question 34

The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is ______.

A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgE

Question 35

The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are _______.

A) IgM only
B) IgG only
C) IgD only
D) IgM and IgD
E) IgD and IgE

Question 36

Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates?

A) Opsonization
B) Complement ?xation
C) Agglutination
D) Neutralization
E) Anamnestic response

Question 37

Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin?

A) It is called the crystallizable fragment.
B) It contains an effector molecule that can ?x complement.
C) It forms the antigen binding sites.
D) It contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells.
E) It determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs.

Question 38

T cell response to T-dependent antigens requires _______.

A) typically a protein antigen
B) binding of the T cell to a class II MHC receptor on a macrophage
C) binding of the T cell to a site on the antigen
D) interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 39

Which of the following is not a property of B cells?

A) There are low numbers circulating in the blood.
B) They require antigen presented with MHC proteins.
C) They mature in the bone marrow.
D) They have receptors called immunoglobulins.
E) They produce plasma cells and memory cells.

Question 40

The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is _______.

A) IgE
B) IgD
C) IgA
D) IgM
E) IgG

Question 41

Edward Jenner's work involved _______.

A) immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one
B) development of passive immunotherapy
C) development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox
D) inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity

Question 42

Live, attenuated vaccines _______.

A) include the Sabin polio vaccine
B) include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR)
C) contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person
D) require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 43

An activated TH cell produces _______, which is a growth factor for T helper cells and cytotoxic T cells.

A) interleukin-1
B) interleukin-2
C) interleukin-12
D) antiserum
E) complement

Question 44

An example of arti?cial active immunity would be _______.

A) chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity
B) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease
C) chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox
D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta

Question 45

Cytotoxic T cells _______.

A) secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells
B) are activated by free, soluble antigens
C) lack speci?city for antigen
D) secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells

Question 46

Antitoxins _______.

A) contain modi?ed bacterial exotoxin molecules
B) contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses
C) are always genetically engineered
D) utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen
E) confer passive immunity

Question 47

Which lymphocytes lack speci?city for antigen and attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?

A) Suppressor T cells
B) Natural killer (NK) cells
C) Cytotoxic T cells
D) Delayed hypersensitivity T cells
E) Helper T cells

Question 48

Speci?c immunity provides long-lasting protection through the production of _______.

A) plasma cells
B) T helper cells
C) memory cells
D) antibodies
E) phagocytotic cells

Question 49

An example of natural active immunity would be _______.

A) chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox
B) chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity
C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease
D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta

Question 50

The most signi?cant cells in graft rejection are _______.

A) delayed hypersensitivity T cells
B) natural killer (NK) cells
C) suppressor T cells
D) helper T cells
E) cytotoxic T cells

Question 51

Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make _______.

A) antibodies to toxin
B) an adjuvant
C) gamma globulin
D) a booster
E) a "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine

Question 52

An example of arti?cial passive immunity would be _______.

A) chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity
B) chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox
C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease
D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta

Question 53

Each _____ fragment of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that folds into a groove for one epitope.

A) hinge
B) FAb
C) variable
D) terminal
E) Fc

Question 54

An example of natural passive immunity would be _______.

A) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta
B) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease
C) chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox
D) chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity

Question 55

High titers of speci?c antibodies are characteristic of _______.

A) toxoids
B) speci?c immune globulin (SIG)
C) gamma globulin
D) attenuated vaccines
E) immune serum globulin (ISG)

Question 56

Immunotherapy is the _______.

A) use of antitoxins
B) use of immune serum globulin
C) conferring of passive immunity
D) administering of preformed antibodies
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 57

What process generates many B cells and T cells that are activated against speci?c antigens?

A) Antigen presentation
B) Antigen expression
C) Antibody production
D) Clonal expansion
E) Opsonization

Question 58

Which of the following is not a target for TC cells?

A) Pig transplanted heart
B) Bacteria
C) Cancer cells
D) Human transplanted liver
E) Virus-infected cells

Question 59

Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by _______.

A) passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture
B) removal of virulence genes from the microbe
C) treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation
D) long-term subculturing of the microbe

Question 60

Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines _______.

A) contain modi?ed bacterial exotoxin molecules
B) contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses
C) utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen
D) confer passive immunity
E) are always genetically engineered

Question 61

Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.

Question 62

Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity.

Question 63

Fluzone is a brand name for a very commonly given in?uenza vaccine. The vaccine is prepared by ?rst harvesting ?u viruses in chicken embryos and then breaking apart virus particles into protein subunits, thereby inactivating the virus. Your friend refuses to get the vaccine. Which of these statements is the only valid reason for her not to get the ?u vaccine?

A) She is allergic to eggs.
B) She could catch the ?u from the inactivated vaccine.
C) She could pass the virus onto her baby, causing the child to become autistic.
D) She could die from the vaccine.

Question 64

All nucleated cells contain _______.

A) IgD receptors
B) class II MHC
C) IgE receptors
D) secretory antibodies
E) class I MHC

Question 65

The secondary response to an antigen is more rapid and robust than the primary response.

Question 66

Clonal selection requires the presence of foreign antigens.

Question 67

During which response to the antigen do we display a latent period of no secretory antibody synthesis?

A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary

Question 68

Autoimmune disorders are characterized by immune destruction of self tissues. The underlying basis of these disorders is _______.

A) an oversecretion of antibodies from memory B cells
B) an overproduction of complement
C) a lack of immune tolerance
D) lack of an anamnestic response

Question 69

Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?

A) Adjuvant
B) Gamma globulin
C) Booster
D) "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine
E) Antibodies to toxin

Question 70

One plasma cell will secrete antibodies of various classes, but the antibodies will all have the same speci?city.

Question 71

Activation of B cells can occur when antigen binds to B cell surface immunoglobulin receptors.

Question 72

The structural and functional differences that distinguish immunoglobulin isotypes are due to variations associated with their Fc fragments.

Question 73

The array of potential antibodies to the variety of possible antigens is amazing. Which statement explains this development?

A) There is a shu?ing of genes that code for self markers as well as nonself markers, mixing them together and producing reactive lymphocytes to those markers.
B) Mutations in the antibody gene occur within the activated B cells, since they meet the antigen.
C) The existing antibody molecules change their shapes, allowing them to ?t with a large number of antigens.
D) Recombination of genes coding for the variable regions of immunoglobulins occurs during the developmental stage of lymphocyte production.

Question 74

Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids.

Question 75

A cytotoxic T lymphocyte, having been activated against a particular viral antigen, "sees" this same antigen displayed on the surface of a host cell. What will happen?

A) The cytotoxic body cell will activate B cells which then produce antibody against the antigen.
B) The cytotoxic T cell will produce antibodies against the antigen.
C) The antigen will move inside of the host body cell, thereby hiding from the cytotoxic T cell.
D) The cytotoxic T cell will produce proteins that cause the host body cell to die.

Question 76

A patient enters your clinic with a suspected helminthic infection. In support of this diagnosis, you suspect elevated levels of which antibody in the patient's serum?

A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgD

Question 77

You do not really want to get your 3 children vaccinated. Your view is why do it when others around you will get the vaccine and end up protecting you and your children. Which is an accurate statement that your physician may provide to you in response to your challenge to vaccination?

A) This is not a smart choice. If enough people choose not to get vaccinated, the susceptible population grows to a large size, breaking the protective effect of herd immunity.
B) Your choice is ?ne; your children will never become infected since this is actually the basis of herd immunity.
C) Your choice is ?ne; maybe you will change your mind when your child goes to college.
D) This is not a smart choice. You could face potential arrest for not vaccinating your child per the regulations of the U.S. government.

Question 78

After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells.

Question 79

As an adult who never developed chickenpox infection as a child, you elect to receive the protective vaccine against this pathogen at the age of 35. This vaccine will stimulate _______.

A) a primary immune response
B) a secondary immune response
C) latency
D) an anamnestic response

Question 80

The hinge region of an antibody has a hypervariable amino acid region where the antigenic determinant ?ts.