Deck 10: Genetic Analysis and Genetic Engineering

Question 1

A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is ______.

A) genetic engineering
B) biotechnology
C) recombinant DNA
D) gel electrophoresis
E) gene probes

Answer 1

gel electrophoresis

Question 2

Gene probes can be labeled for detection with reporter molecules such as _____.

A) enzymes
B) ?uorescent dyes
C) radioisotopes
D) All of the choices can be used.

Answer 2

All of the choices can be used.

Question 3

Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a speci?c sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are known as ______.

A) genetic engineering
B) biotechnology
C) recombinant DNA
D) gel electrophoresis
E) gene probes

Answer 3

gene probes

Question 4

Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are ______.

A) palindromes
B) reverse transcriptases
C) restriction endonucleases
D) ligases
E) DNA polymerases

Question 5

DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called ______.

A) palindromes
B) reverse transcriptases
C) restriction endonucleases
D) ligases
E) DNA polymerases

Question 6

Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip DNA base sequences called ______.

A) codons
B) palindromes
C) introns
D) exons
E) genes

Question 7

DNA strands can begin to separate at the temperature of ______.

A) 37^oC
B) 42^oC
C) 60^oC
D) 90^oC
E) 100^oC

Question 8

EcoRI and HindIII are ______.

A) palindromes
B) reverse transcriptases
C) restriction endonucleases
D) ligases
E) DNA polymerases

Question 9

The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are termed ______.

A) genetic engineering
B) biotechnology
C) recombinant DNA
D) gel electrophoresis
E) gene probes

Question 10

Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis is based on ______.

A) larger fragments moving slowly and remaining closer to the wells
B) DNA having an overall negative charge and moving to the positive pole
C) DNA fragments being stained so that they can be seen
D) application of an electric current through the gel causing DNA fragments to migrate
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 11

Any use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is referred to as ______.

A) genetic engineering
B) biotechnology
C) recombinant DNA
D) gel electrophoresis
E) gene probes

Question 12

DNA fragments can be separated in gel electrophoresis because ______.

A) nitrogenous bases have a net negative charge
B) nitrogenous bases have a net positive charge
C) phosphate groups have a net positive charge
D) phosphate groups have a net negative charge

Question 13

Which of the following is not true of ?uorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)?

A) Probes can be applied to intact cells.
B) Probes can locate genes on chromosomes.
C) It can be used to identify unknown bacteria without culturing.
D) It uses electrophoresis to separate the DNA.
E) It can be used to detect RNA in cells.

Question 14

Geneticists can create sequences of DNA from RNA using enzymes called ______.

A) palindromes
B) reverse transcriptases
C) restriction endonucleases
D) ligases
E) DNA polymerases

Question 15

Two different nucleic acids can _____ by annealing at their complementary sites.

A) ligate
B) covalently bond
C) form a peptide bond
D) hybridize

Question 16

Ampli?cation of DNA is accomplished by ______.

A) a Western blot
B) DNA sequencing
C) a Southern blot
D) the polymerase chain reaction
E) gene probes

Question 17

Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of ______ .

A) RNA
B) a speci?c genetic marker sequence
C) proteins
D) recombinant DNA
E) DNA

Question 18

DNA polymerases used in PCR ______.

A) include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase
B) use an RNA template to make complementary DNA
C) are labeled with ?uorescent dyes
D) must remain active at very cold temperatures

Question 19

In the formation of recombinant DNA, what enzyme is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes?

A) DNA polymerase I
B) DNA polymerase II
C) DNA helicase
D) DNA ligase
E) Primase

Question 20

The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains.

A) genes
B) codons
C) base pairs
D) proteins
E) triplets

Question 21

Which PCR step synthesizes complimentary DNA strands?

A) Cool DNA to between 50° C and 65° C.
B) Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C.
C) Add primers.
D) Heat target DNA to 94° C.

Question 22

Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are ______.

A) sources of heat-stable DNA polymerases
B) genetically engineered bacteria
C) used as cloning vectors
D) principal sources of restriction endonucleases

Question 23

The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and its subsequent transfer into the genome of another organism is a speci?c technique called ______.

A) genetic engineering
B) biotechnology
C) recombinant DNA technology
D) gel electrophoresis
E) gene probe technology

Question 24

Which of the following is the second step in gene cloning?

A) Target DNA removed from cells and isolated
B) Cloning host treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid
C) Separate DNA fragments with gel electrophoresis
D) Desired protein is produced by cloning host
E) Gene is ampli?ed by multiplication of cloning host

Question 25

Which of the following is a list of the materials required for PCR?

A) Reverse transcriptase, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides
B) Primers, Taq RNA polymerase, nucleotides
C) Primers, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides
D) Reverse transcriptase, Taq RNA polymerase, nucleotides

Question 26

Common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are ______.

A) plasmids
B) viruses
C) bacteriophages
D) arti?cial chromosomes
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 27

If you start with 3 double-stranded DNA fragments, after 4 cycles of PCR you will have ______ fragments.

A) 12
B) 24
C) 27
D) 48
E) 81

Question 28

The primers in PCR are ______.

A) synthetic DNA oligonucleotides
B) reverse transcriptases
C) bacterial enzymes
D) short RNA strands
E) DNA polymerases

Question 29

Transgenic organisms are ______.

A) created in nature
B) only microorganisms
C) copyrighted
D) patented

Question 30

Each of the following are features of a cloning host except ______.

A) quick generation time
B) minimal growth requirements
C) mapped genome
D) pathogenicity
E) transformable

Question 31

The commercial product Frostban consists of a genetically altered bacterium which prevents ice crystals from forming on plants, thereby reducing freezing of plants and ?nancial distress to the farmers as a result of freezing weather. This product contains a strain of ______.

A) Escherichia coli
B) Pseudomonas syringae
C) Thermus aquaticus
D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E) Pseudomonas ?uorescens

Question 32

Recombinant strains of _____ are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading insects.

A) Pseudomonas ?uorescens
B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C) Pseudomonas syringae
D) Escherichia coli
E) Thermus aquaticus

Question 33

Transgenic animals ______.

A) can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins
B) are often obtained from germline engineering
C) will pass the genes on to their offspring
D) commonly include mice
E) All of the choices are correct

Question 34

Each of the following are features of a cloning vector except ______.

A) origin of replication
B) reverse transcriptases
C) genetic markers used to screen for recombinants
D) capacity for large inserts
E) multiple cloning sites

Question 35

Making new genomes is called ______.

A) bioengineering
B) synthetic biology
C) genetic engineering
D) cloning
E) recombinant DNA

Question 36

Which step in gene cloning can occur even more rapidly by PCR?

A) Target DNA removed from cells and isolated
B) Cloning host treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid
C) Target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease
D) Desired protein is produced by cloning host
E) Gene is ampli?ed by multiplication of cloning host

Question 37

Genomic _____ are collections of isolated genes maintained in cloning hosts.

A) DNA
B) libraries
C) clones
D) digests
E) books

Question 38

Which step in gene cloning involves transformation?

A) Target DNA removed from cells and isolated
B) Cloning host receives plasmid
C) Target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease
D) Desired protein is produced by cloning host
E) Gene is ampli?ed by multiplication of cloning host

Question 39

Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?

A) Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C.
B) Cool DNA to between 50° C and 65° C.
C) Add primers.
D) Heat target DNA to 94° C.
E) Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling.

Question 40

Which of the following is not true of vectors?

A) They are easy to manipulate.
B) They contain a gene for drug resistance.
C) An origin of replication (ORI) is present.
D) They can detect RNA in cells.
E) They must accept DNA of desired size.

Question 41

The process of introducing a needed, normal gene into human cells is called DNA mapping.

Question 42

What type of DNA map is most detailed?

A) Linkage
B) Sequence
C) Physical
D) Geographical
E) Chromosomal

Question 43

Which of the following is a promising treatment for stopping the expression of an unwanted gene?

A) Antisense therapy
B) DNA ?ngerprinting
C) Cloning
D) Gene therapy

Question 44

After three replication cycles in PCR, there will be a total of three double-stranded DNA molecules.

Question 45

Humans display how much DNA similarity with mice?

A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%
E) 90%

Question 46

When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called ______.

A) cloning
B) gene therapy
C) antisense therapy
D) DNA ?ngerprinting

Question 47

Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid.

Question 48

Of the following choices, which could be used in the treatment of a patient in order to determine the patient's cancer subtype?

A) PCR
B) Oryza sativa
C) Western Blot analysis
D) Transformation
E) Microarray analysis

Question 49

Genetically modi?ed organisms include _____.

A) bacteria
B) viruses
C) plants
D) nonhuman animals
E) All of the above have been genetically modi?ed.

Question 50

Which of the following techniques is mismatched with its use in DNA ?ngerprinting?

A) PCR ampli?cation to get more copies of DNA
B) Southern blot for a visual record of DNA fragments
C) Hybridization probes to digest the DNA sample
D) Restriction endonucleases to cut DNA
E) Electrophoresis to separate DNA fragments

Question 51

An example of gene therapy is the insertion of the gene for human growth hormone into E. coli cells.

Question 52

Viruses are often used as cloning hosts in recombinant DNA methods.

Question 53

The study of genomes of a particular community is called ______.

A) metabolomics
B) metagenomics
C) proteomics
D) genomology
E) genomics

Question 54

When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate.

Question 55

E. coli is the best host for cloning because it possesses the mechanisms for processing and modifying proteins.

Question 56

Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria.

Question 57

Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.

Question 58

Transformation and transduction are methods used to introduce DNA into host cells.

Question 59

Transgenic animals are referred to as _____ modi?ed organisms.

A) naturally
B) genetically
C) physically
D) chemically

Question 60

The ?rst genetically engineered protein approved for human use was ______.

A) hemophilia factor VIII
B) human insulin
C) human growth hormone
D) human adrenaline
E) human testosterone

Question 61

Microarray analysis is used to ______.

A) analyze an individual's single nucleotide polymorphisms
B) analyze an organism's entire genome
C) determine the size of gene fragments after digesting with restriction endonucleases
D) determine which genes are being expressed in an organism

Question 62

You have made a speci?c DNA probe that will bind to a key sequence on the DNA of Neisseria gonorrhoeae, allowing your company to market a gonorrhea test kit that can be used to identify the bacterium in genital tract specimens. However, upon testing it out against a known Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture, you ?nd that it does not work. Which of the following is a possible explanation for this negative result?

A) You forgot to incubate the test at the 75oC temperature required for hybridization.
B) You forgot to label the probe sequence with a reporter molecule.
C) You forgot to add the mRNA to the DNA probe sample.
D) You forgot to digest the probe with restriction endonucleases.

Question 63

When micro RNA molecules malfunction, their effect is limited to the inhibition of protein production, which results in tumor growth.

Question 64

Identi?cation of unique DNA ?ngerprints relies on the presence of single nucleotide polymorphisms among samples.

Question 65

Why is an enzyme from a thermophilic bacterium used in PCR?

A) It is cheaper to obtain from live microorganisms than producing the enzyme in a lab.
B) DNA is replicated at a high temperature that denatures most proteins.
C) The enzyme makes DNA that is more similar to human DNA.
D) This thermohile's enzyme will synthesize DNA.

Question 66

The advantage of germline therapy over somatic cell therapy is that the normal gene is inserted into an egg, sperm, or developing embryo so that the repair is present in every cell of the organism as it matures to adulthood.

Question 67

SNPs are derived from ______.

A) point mutations
B) gene therapy
C) frameshift mutations
D) genetic engineering

Question 68

What is the evolutionary advantage of bacteria producing restriction endonucleases?

A) Bacteria use these enzymes to repair their own mistakes made during DNA replication.
B) These enzymes are a defensive measure of bacteria to defend themselves against invading DNA of bacteriophages.
C) They make these enzymes for humans to use in manipulating DNA.
D) Bacteria use these enzymes to attack other bacteria and destroy their DNA.

Question 69

It is possible to identify mRNA molecules using fluorescently labeled cDNA.

Question 70

Before the advent of biotechnology, diabetics would use insulin harvested from cows. Now they receive human insulin produced through ______.

A) gene therapy
B) PCR
C) gel electrophoresis
D) recombinant DNA technology

Question 71

Your infant has been diagnosed with severe combined immunode?ciency disease (SCID). Your doctor suggests which treatment as a possible cure for the disease?

A) Genome mapping
B) Reverse transcription
C) Gene therapy
D) Microarrays

Question 72

Micro RNA therapy is based on the premise that ______.

A) miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by inhibiting transcription; a non-functional miRNA can be replaced thereby reducing unwanted protein production
B) miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by promoting translation; a non-functional miRNA can be repaired thereby reducing unwanted protein production
C) miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by initiating transcription; an over-production of miRNA can be replaced thereby promoting necessary protein
Production
D) miRNA molecules function to regulate protein production, usually by inhibiting translation; a hyperactive miRNA can be replaced thereby reducing unwanted proteins

Question 73

In choosing the vector used to carry human genes into a host cell, which of the following should be the important consideration?

A) What kind of plasmid it is
B) Whether the vector comes from a bacterium or a virus
C) How much donor DNA can be carried on the vector
D) Whether the vector contains RNA or DNA

Question 74

Often natural disasters leave little intact DNA with which to identify the victim's remains using traditional DNA ?ngerprinting techniques. The discovery of ______ made genetic analysis possible with minute amounts of genetic material.

A) frameshift mutations
B) SNPs
C) microarrays
D) miRNAs

Question 75

The ?eld of pharmacogenomics uses knowledge of an individual's single nucleotide polymorphisms to determine how they will respond to a particular drug.

Question 76

The difference between somatic cell gene therapy and germline therapy is that ______.

A) somatic cell gene therapy is introduced into the egg, sperm or developing embryo, whereas germline therapy introduces a new gene into a mature tissue
B) somatic cell gene therapy overcomes a protein malfunction in speci?c tissues but is not repaired in the entire organism and cannot be passed on to offspring
C) germline therapy is the temporary repair of a genetic mutation, whereas somatic cell therapy is a permanent ?x
D) germline therapy overcomes a protein malfunction in speci?c tissues but is not repaired in the entire organism and cannot be passed on to offspring

Question 77

Which of the following recombinant DNA technology products is mismatched?

A) Erythropoietin - stimulates erythrocyte production in bone marrow
B) Factor VIII - a protein necessary for the coagulation cascade
C) Interferons - stimulate antiviral protein production
D) Tissue plasminogen activating factor - stimulates blood clotting

Question 78

The enzyme required to attach the sticky ends of DNA and used when splicing DNA fragments into other DNA is ______.

A) helicase
B) ligase
C) endonuclease
D) reverse transcriptase

Question 79

You want to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis in a patient sputum sample. Which procedure would be most useful in this case?

A) Whole genome sequencing
B) Microarray analysis
C) Polymerase chain reaction
D) DNA probe analysis

Question 80

It is now possible to very quickly map the genome of an organism or virus.