Deck 15: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment

Question 1

Although _____ produce(s) more accurate predictions, most research on jurors' reactions to risk assessment evidence finds that _____ impact on jurors' ratings of dangerousness.

A) actuarial methods; clinical testimony has a greater
B) clinical judgment; actuarial predictions have a greater
C) combined clinical and actuarial testimony; neither method has much
D) neither clinical nor actuarial methods; actuarial methods have a greater

Answer 1

actuarial methods; clinical testimony has a greater

Question 2

According to the text, as of 2013, _____ states and the federal government adopted sexually violent predator _____ laws (SVP laws).

A) 20; civil commitment
B) 20; criminal confinement
C) all 50; civil commitment
D) all 50; criminal confinement

Answer 2

20; civil commitment

Question 3

Most studies show that sex offenders have lower reoffense rates than other types of criminals. Even though this finding may reflect the true differences in recidivism, there are other factors that contribute to the lower reoffense rates found among sex offenders. Which of the following is NOT among such factors?

A) Many sexual offenses go unreported.
B) Self-reports might underestimate the incidence of sex crimes.
C) When sex offenders recidivate, they only commit sexual offenses.
D) Follow-up time periods for calculating reoffense rates are relatively short.

Answer 3

When sex offenders recidivate, they only commit sexual offenses.

Question 4

In Kansas v. Hendricks (1997), the Supreme Court was contemplating whether SVP laws violate double jeopardy. In a _____ ruling, the Court decided that such laws do not create _____.

A) sharply divided; double cross from search and seizure
B) sharply divided; double punishment for the same crime
C) unanimous; extra cross from search and seizure
D) unanimous; extra punishment for the same crime

Question 5

Regarding risk assessment, which of the following is an example of a false negative?

A) A person who was predicted not to become violent turns out not to be violent.
B) A person who was predicted to become violent turns out not to be violent.
C) A person who was predicted not to become violent turns out to be violent.
D) A person who was predicted to become violent turns out to be violent.

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT an example of a historical, or "static," marker?

A) Major mental disorder.
B) Personality disorder.
C) Impulsivity.
D) Age at first offense.

Question 7

The rate at which an event occurs in a given population is called the _____ rate.

A) actuarial
B) statistical
C) base
D) occurrence

Question 8

According to a report completed by Gookin (2007), nearly _____ have been incarcerated as a result of the SVP laws in the United States since 1990. As of 2007, _____ of them have been released.

A) 250 sex offenders; none
B) 1,000 violent criminals; none
C) 4,500 sex offenders; 10%
D) 100,000 violent criminals; 25%

Question 9

An individual who has a "recurrent, intense sexual urge or behavior involving sexual activity with a prepubescent child or children" is classified as a:

A) sadist.
B) pedophile.
C) masochist.
D) cyclothymic-disordered personality.

Question 10

In capital sentencing, expert testimony mainly focuses on the defendant's potential _____. In Barefoot v. Estelle (1983), the Supreme Court ruled that such testimony was admissible because jurors are capable of _____.

A) for remorse; embracing the expert's opinion
B) for remorse; recognizing its weaknesses
C) future dangerousness; embracing the expert's opinion
D) future dangerousness; recognizing its weaknesses

Question 11

_____ was the first person to be subjected to the _____ laws (SVP laws).

A) Michael Crane; sojourn violent potential
B) Thomas Barefoot; sojourn violent potential
C) Prosenjit Poddar; sexually violent predator civil commitment
D) Leroy Hendricks; sexually violent predator civil commitment

Question 12

In which of the following cases did the Court extend the Tarasoff requirement by deciding that information provided by a family member of an adult client and not by the client could trigger the "duty to protect" requirement?

A) Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California
B) Ewing v. Goldstein
C) Kansas v. Hendricks
D) Kansas v. Crane

Question 13

Beliefs that other people or forces are controlling one's thoughts or implanting thoughts in one's mind are referred to as:

A) threat/control-override symptoms.
B) diathesis/stress symptoms.
C) anger/impulse symptoms.
D) anosognosia.

Question 14

There are two aspects related to the purpose of the sexually violent predator civil commitment laws (SVP laws). One is the state's authority to protect the citizenry, also referred to as _____ power. The second component is the state's duty to protect those who cannot protect themselves, sometimes referred to as _____ power.

A) police; parens patriae
B) parens patriae; police
C) police state; parental violence
D) coercive; vulnerable citizen

Question 15

Actuarial instruments _____ unstructured clinical judgment in predicting violence, though scientists raised some concerns about _____.

A) clearly outperform; their impersonal nature
B) clearly outperform; their generalizability
C) do not outperform; the usefulness of either method
D) do not outperform; the questionable scientific techniques involved

Question 16

There are some important ways in which involuntary civil commitment is different from criminal confinement, as both currently exist. Which of the following is NOT one of these differences?

A) The burden of proof: clear and convincing evidence versus beyond a reasonable doubt.
B) The length of confinement: indeterminate versus specified.
C) The reason for confinement: prevention of harm versus punishment.
D) The decision-making authority: courts versus psychiatrists.

Question 17

Many states and the federal government have passed sexually violent predator civil commitment laws (SVP laws). The basis of these laws is to protect vulnerable citizens, or exercise the _____ power, and to restrain violent individuals, or exercise the state's _____ power.

A) police; parens patriae
B) parens patriae; police
C) double jeopardy; substantive
D) substantive; double jeopardy

Question 18

The movement to release mentally ill patients from hospitals is called:

A) civil decommitment.
B) dehospitalization.
C) deinstitutionalization.
D) criminal negligence.

Question 19

In Kansas v. Crane (2002), the Supreme Court has clarified the Hendricks conditions for involuntary civil commitment of sexually violent predators. In addition to the mental illness and future danger requirements, the following condition was added:

A) family turmoil and lack of stable living arrangements.
B) serious Level of Difficulty controlling his or her urges.
C) extended criminal history of violent offenses.
D) presence of antisocial personality disorder.

Question 20

The _____, which was submitted by the American Psychiatric Association in Barefoot v. Estelle (1983), summarized five studies indicating that expert predictions of future dangerousness were _____.

A) amicus curiae brief; incorrect 2 out of 3 times
B) amicus curiae brief; correct about 80% of the time
C) forensic evidence form; incorrect 2 out of 3 times
D) forensic evidence form; correct about 80% of the time

Question 21

The likelihood of "continuous threat to society" that expert predictions of risk are supposed to address in capital penalty cases is problematic. All of the following are valid reasons for this, EXCEPT:

A) This standard should refer to "prison society" since the alternative to the death penalty is life in prison.
B) The factors contributing to prison violence are different from those contributing to violence in general society.
C) Very few court cases have addressed this issue so it is unclear which "society" the standard refers to.
D) Psychological tests measuring future dangerousness are much less accurate when applied to "prison society."

Question 22

According to the text, research studies find that the rate of reoffense after sexual crimes is _____ than the rate of reoffense after other crimes.

A) slightly higher
B) significantly higher
C) lower
D) not different

Question 23

At its high point (in the 1950s), the number of people housed in _____ in the United States reached close to _____ individuals.

A) mental asylums; ten thousand
B) mental asylums; half a million
C) jails and prisons; ten thousand
D) jails and prisons; ten million

Question 24

The Supreme Court case of Kansas v. Hendricks (1997) has addressed several challenges about potential constitutional violations of SVP laws. Which one of the following is NOT among these challenges?

A) SVP laws create a potential of double punishment for the same crime.
B) When the crime was committed, the possibility of the SVP-induced penalty did not exist.
C) SVP laws deprive individuals of their constitutional right to bear arms.
D) SVP laws arbitrarily deprive individuals of their right to freedom.

Question 25

The courts' decisions with regard to civil commitment laws tend to support the idea that psychological experts _____ predict future violence, _____.

A) cannot; in line with the scientific evidence
B) cannot; despite strong evidence to the contrary
C) can; in line with the scientific evidence
D) can; despite strong evidence to the contrary

Question 26

Predictions made by psychological experts regarding potential future violence are almost uniformly _____ by the courts.

A) deemed null
B) overruled
C) upheld
D) denied

Question 27

When it comes to sex offender community notification and registration laws, there is _____ scientific evidence that they reduce sexual recidivism. Most critics argue that these laws _____.

A) solid; only make the public feel safe without actually affecting safety
B) solid; do not make the public safer
C) no; only make the public feel safe without actually affecting safety
D) no; make the public safer

Question 28

The movement to deinstitutionalize mentally ill patients was brought about by all of the following factors, EXCEPT:

A) humanitarian advocacy.
B) high financial costs of hospitalization.
C) shortage of medical professionals.
D) the advent of antipsychotic medications.

Question 29

Cathy was incarcerated because she has a history of physical and mental abuse of her stepchildren. She has been held in custody for an extended period after her incarceration term ended because she has the possibility of becoming violent, which is also known as:

A) extended detention.
B) preventative detention.
C) overzealous sentencing.
D) illegitimate sentencing.

Question 30

According to the text, all of the following statements about people with serious mental illnesses are correct, EXCEPT:

A) A mentally ill person is more likely to be a victim than a perpetrator of violence.
B) Proper treatment of mental illness can essentially eliminate the slight increase in the risk of violence.
C) Substance abuse increases the likelihood of violence.
D) Playing video games increases the likelihood of violence.

Question 31

It is basically impossible to calculate the rate of reoffense for sexual offenders correctly. All of the following reasons for that are valid, EXCEPT:

A) Recidivism rates based on rearrest do not take into account unreported crimes.
B) Self-reports of perpetration are likely to underestimate recidivism rates due to the stigma associated with sexual crimes.
C) Self-reports of victimization are likely to underestimate recidivism rates due to underreporting by victims.
D) The longer recidivism is tracked, the lower are the reoffense rates.

Question 32

In Barefoot v. Estelle (1983), the American Psychiatric Association provided an amicus curiae brief stating that expert predictions of violence risk were _____ two out of three times. The Supreme Court held that experts _____ provide their opinion in such cases.

A) incorrect; should still
B) incorrect; should not
C) likely to be correct more than; should
D) likely to be correct more than; should still abstain when asked to

Question 33

Placing someone in a psychiatric facility against his or her will is known as:

A) voluntary civil commitment.
B) involuntary civil commitment.
C) involuntary criminal commitment.
D) deinstitutionalization.

Question 34

Violent behaviors are only slightly more likely among people with severe mental illness. According to the text, a much more important factor is _____, which _____ violent behavior even among mentally healthy people.

A) substance abuse; increases
B) substance abuse; decreases
C) violent video games; increase
D) violent video games; decrease

Question 35

In many death penalty cases, the sentence is decided based on the _____ standard, which is a probability that the defendant would commit an act of criminal violence and thus presents a continuous threat to society.

A) concurrent dangerousness
B) future dangerousness
C) possibility of recidivism
D) threat/control override

Question 36

During most death penalty trials, expert testimony about the defendant's future dangerousness is provided:

A) by psychologists or psychiatrists.
B) by probation officers.
C) via amicus curiae briefs.
D) to the judge only, out of earshot of the jury.

Question 37

The Supreme Court made it clear in Barefoot v. Estelle (1983) that expert predictions of future dangerousness were _____ in capital sentencing _____.

A) inadmissible; because of their high inaccuracy
B) inadmissible; despite their likely accuracy
C) admissible; despite their likely inaccuracy
D) admissible; because of their high accuracy

Question 38

Only three states have been responsible for over half of the total executions in the United States since 1976:

A) Texas, Oklahoma, and Virginia.
B) Texas, Idaho, and Wyoming.
C) Oklahoma, Virginia, and Idaho.
D) Wyoming, Oklahoma, and Virginia.

Question 39

In Kansas v. Hendricks (1997), the Supreme Court ruled that sexually violent predator civil commitment laws did NOT violate double jeopardy. Double jeopardy means that:

A) an individual was punished for two separate crimes in one sentence.
B) an individual was punished two times for the same crime.
C) a defendant was tried twice.
D) a convicted felon was subjected to two forms of punishment running concurrently.

Question 40

Community notification requiring states to make personal and private information about known sex offenders available to the public is a result of the enactment of the:

A) Megan's Law.
B) Violence Risk Appraisal Guide (VRAG).
C) duty to protect laws.
D) sexually violent predator (SVP) civil commitment laws.

Question 41

_____ prediction is a method that requires that relevant risk factors be statistically evaluated to calculate the probability of future violence.

A) Clinical
B) Idiographic
C) Actuarial
D) Chronological

Question 42

When actuarial assessment of violence risk is conducted, all of the following factors would be classified as historical markers, EXCEPT:

A) past violent behavior.
B) psychopathy.
C) abuse of alcohol and drugs that started at age 9.
D) persistent strong feelings of anger.

Question 43

An idiographic, qualitative approach to the prediction of violent behavior is based on _____ conducted by a clinician. Studies find this approach _____ when compared to actuarial methods of prediction.

A) a specific case study; superior
B) a specific case study; inferior
C) observations in natural environment; superior
D) surveys of large groups of people; inferior

Question 44

The strategy whereby psychologists predict future violence that does not entail specific rules of how to collect information is called:

A) unstructured clinical judgment.
B) scientific approach.
C) experimental approach.
D) observational study.

Question 45

In assessing the risk of future violence, predictive markers that change over time and may be responsive to treatment are referred to as:

A) dynamic markers.
B) risk management markers.
C) historical markers.
D) case markers.

Question 46

The predictive ability of more structured, scientific approaches to risk assessment has been found _____ compared with unstructured clinical judgment.

A) less accurate
B) more accurate
C) practically infallible when
D) to produce almost identical results when

Question 47

In Kansas v. Crane (2002), the Supreme Court held that the following conditions are required for involuntary civil commitment under SVP laws, EXCEPT:

A) some form of mental illness (as defined by individual states' laws).
B) a history of violent behavior.
C) a future danger to society.
D) a serious Level of Difficulty controlling urges.

Question 48

The burden of proof for civil commitment is:

A) beyond a reasonable doubt.
B) by clear and convincing evidence.
C) by a preponderance of the evidence.
D) dependent on the defendant's prior criminal and hospital record.

Question 49

Psychopathy includes all of the following traits, EXCEPT:

A) persistent feelings of anger and resentment.
B) lack of empathy and lack of remorse.
C) dishonesty and tendency to be manipulative.
D) disinhibition, boldness, and meanness.

Question 50

Involuntary civil commitment is based on what:

A) a person might do in the future.
B) a person has done.
C) the community wants.
D) is available in terms of beds in institutions.

Question 51

Because clinicians were not aware of how often offenders reoffend, which is called the _____, clinicians' predictions would _____ the likelihood of violent behavior.

A) actuarial rate; underestimate
B) actuarial rate; overestimate
C) base rate of reoffense; underestimate
D) base rate of reoffense; overestimate

Question 52

To hospitalize someone against his or her will, most states now require that certain conditions be met. Which of the following is NOT one of these conditions?

A) Presence of a severe mental disorder.
B) Disruption in a person's functioning due to the severe mental disorder.
C) A substantial likelihood of causing significant harm to self or others in the near future.
D) A documented history of recent dangerous behaviors.

Question 53

Static, or unchanging, markers that are used for predicting future violent behavior are also called:

A) dynamic markers.
B) risk management markers.
C) historical markers.
D) case markers.

Question 54

The length of civil confinement is:

A) specified at sentencing.
B) determined by the legal system alone.
C) determined by psychiatrists alone.
D) not specified up front.

Question 55

A civil confinement is NOT considered to be:

A) a detention.
B) a punishment.
C) preventative.
D) helpful.

Question 56

Researchers have determined three broad categories of predictors of risk for future violent behavior:

A) clinical, actuarial, and mixed methods.
B) historical, dynamic, and risk management markers.
C) nomothetic, idiographic, and dialectical approaches.
D) ex post facto, false positives, and false negatives.

Question 57

The early studies of recidivism that tracked people released from confinement found that:

A) the vast majority of people deemed violent did not reoffend.
B) the vast majority of people deemed non-violent did reoffend.
C) the classification of risk based on clinical judgment is mostly correct.
D) about half of the subjects reoffended within 3 years.

Question 58

According to the text, rates of antisocial personality disorder in the general population are _____, whereas the incidence of this disorder in prison inmates is _____.

A) approximately 70%; 0.3-3.3%
B) approximately 50%; close to 100%
C) 0.3-3.3%; up to 70%
D) 33%; over 90%

Question 59

A false negative means that a person was:

A) correctly predicted to become violent.
B) incorrectly predicted to become violent.
C) correctly predicted to be non-violent.
D) incorrectly predicted to be non-violent.

Question 60

Civil commitments are based on the state's parens patria power. As a result, they are defined not as _____ but as a way to _____.

A) detention; help people who cannot care for themselves
B) detention; isolate sick people from the rest of the society
C) punishment; help people who cannot care for themselves
D) punishment; isolate sick people from the rest of the society

Question 61

When evaluating risk assessment evidence, it has been found that jurors usually find _____ predictions more convincing. Research shows that _____ predictions are more accurate.

A) clinical; actuarial
B) actuarial; clinical
C) statistical; intuitive
D) robotic; passionate

Question 62

What criteria must an individual meet to be involuntarily civilly committed? Do these criteria differ for sexually violent predators?

Question 63

Among dynamic markers of risk in actuarial prediction of future violence, there are all of the following factors, EXCEPT:

A) psychiatric symptomatology.
B) antisocial personality disorder.
C) lack of insight.
D) impulsivity.

Question 64

How does expert prediction of future dangerousness matter in death penalty cases? How does it differ from the usual risk assessment? Explain and discuss.

Question 65

How does clinical risk assessment differ from actuarial risk assessment when it comes to predicting violence? What are the three categories of markers in actuarial risk prediction (provide some examples)? Are all three sets of markers considered equally in actuarial risk assessment techniques? Is the clinical or actuarial method of violence prediction more accurate? Which method is favored by juries and judges?

Question 66

What are the ethical issues involved in risk assessment? Explain and discuss.

Question 67

All of the following statements are true about actuarial risk assessment, EXCEPT:

A) Actuarial measures mostly rely on historical markers because dynamic and risk management markers are more difficult to measure.
B) If only static markers are used for risk assessment, people committed under SVP laws would never be released.
C) Actuarial instruments do not include rare factors impacting violence risk, only the more common factors.
D) Research shows that clinicians can improve the accuracy of actuarial prediction if they adjust it based on their clinical intuition.

Question 68

Threat/control-override symptoms are common in people suffering from _____. What leads to the symptoms is their common delusion that others _____ them.

A) paranoid schizophrenia; want to harm
B) paranoid schizophrenia; don't matter to
C) psychopathy; are unfair to
D) psychopathy; are watching

Question 69

Scholars argue that it may be more productive to focus on _____ rather than on predicting violence. In risk assessment, the emphasis should be on dynamic risk factors that can be changed through _____.

A) observing; treatment
B) observing; historical markers
C) preventing; treatment
D) preventing; historical markers

Question 70

James has a history of violent behavior. Many times, he has demonstrated he has not mastered the ability to maintain control over his own emotions, thoughts, and behaviors. This inability is also known as:

A) locus of control.
B) self-esteem.
C) self-reliance.
D) impulsivity.