Deck 4: Prenatal Development

Question 1

According to the authors of the textbook, what was one of the lessons of the thalidomide tragedy?

A)Drugs cause more serious defects the later in pregnancy they are taken.
B)Each drug has one or more serious defects associated with it.
C)A drug that appears harmless in animal or adult human testing may be harmful to developing embryos and fetuses.
D)Only prescription drugs are safe during pregnancy.

Answer 1

A drug that appears harmless in animal or adult human testing may be harmful to developing embryos and fetuses.

Question 2

When does the fetus achieve the minimal age of viability?

A)between weeks 8 and 12 of the pregnancy
B)between weeks 12 and 16 of the pregnancy
C)between weeks 18 and 20 of the pregnancy
D)between weeks 22 and 28 of the pregnancy

Answer 2

between weeks 22 and 28 of the pregnancy

Question 3

Pia, who has active genital herpes, delivered her baby by cesarean section.Why was this form of delivery used?

A)because genital herpes causes the birth canal to deteriorate
B)to ensure faster treatment for the infected infant
C)to prevent transmission of the disease to the infant
D)because genital herpes causes nerve damage that interferes with uterine contractions

Answer 3

to prevent transmission of the disease to the infant

Question 4

During which time period following conception are teratogens most likely to produce major structural abnormalities?

A)the period of the zygote
B)the period of the embryo
C)the period of the fetus
D)Major structural abnormalities are equally likely in all periods of development.

Question 5

How do the trimesters of a pregnancy relate to the stages of the development of the new child?

A)They are equivalent and refer to stages of skeletal growth.
B)They are unrelated.
C)They do not include one of the stages.
D)They include one extra stage.

Question 6

Which substance typically does not pass through the placenta to the developing embryo?

A)oxygen
B)maternal blood cells
C)sugars, proteins, and fats
D)viruses

Question 7

The placenta is fed by blood vessels from the mother and the embryo/fetus.How are the two blood supplies related?

A)The two blood systems are interconnected so that the mother's blood flows directly into the placental villi.
B)The vessel walls serve as semipermeable membranes, but the two bloodstreams do not mix.
C)The placenta carries embryo/fetal waste products out but allows nothing to enter from the mother's bloodstream.
D)The placenta acts as a semipermeable barrier that allows only oxygen and nutrients to pass to the embryo/fetus.

Question 8

In the third week following conception, a primitive structure that eventually becomes the brain and spinal cord is formed when a portion of the ectoderm folds over.What is this structure called?

A)blastocyst
B)peripheral nervous system
C)neural tube
D)chorion

Question 9

Research suggests that infants of mothers who were anxious and distressed during pregnancy are more likely to be difficult to care for.What is the suspected cause of this outcome?

A)the infant's genetically based difficult temperament
B)the high level of stress-related hormones present during the pregnancy
C)the approach to child rearing an anxious, distressed mother takes
D)the lack of support the child and the mother receive from other family members

Question 10

When Jaslene was pregnant, her doctor advised her that moderate drinking was okay but to avoid heavy drinking or bingeing.According to current research is Jaslene's doctor's advice valid?

A)No, because social drinking can have teratogenic effects.
B)Yes, because only heavy or binge drinking will have teratogenic effects.
C)Yes, because only women who also smoke during their pregnancies show teratogenic effects.
D)No, because a conclusive link between drinking and birth defects exists.

Question 11

Cocaine use during pregnancy has been associated with which longer-term outcome(s) for the developing child?

A)cognitive, perceptual, and learning deficits
B)an increased risk for drug abuse and addiction once the child reaches adolescence
C)physical malformations, particularly of the face and limbs, that are increasingly noticeable as the child gets older
D)moderate intellectual disabilities

Question 12

Amanda was in a car accident.She is experiencing extreme pain in her pelvis and lower back and she cannot walk.The emergency room physician suspects that she has fractured her pelvis and recommends further tests, including taking X-rays of her lower abdomen, chest, and upper thighs.If Amanda is 10 weeks pregnant, should she be concerned about having the X-rays?

A)No, because the low doses used in most diagnostic X-rays will not harm a developing fetus.
B)Yes, because even a single low-dose exposure is likely to cause serious mutations or miscarriage.
C)Yes, because the exact level of radiation that is safe is unknown.
D)No, because radiation has not been found to be associated with birth defects until the third trimester of pregnancy.

Question 13

If a baby were born at 20 weeks, what would be the prognosis for survival?

A)The baby would not survive.
B)The baby would certainly survive and flourish with moderate medical care.
C)The baby would most likely survive but would need significant medical interventions.
D)The baby would have a 50:50 chance of surviving because he or she has just reached the age of viability.

Question 14

Which outcome is associated with increased maternal levels of cortisol during pregnancy?

A)decreased emotionality in the newborn
B)increased emotionality in the newborn
C)organic failure to thrive
D)obesity by age 2

Question 15

What congenital abnormalities are associated with prenatal exposure to rubella?

A)heart defects, blindness, deafness, and intellectual disabilities
B)only deafness
C)deformed arms and legs
D)only blindness

Question 16

Eesha has been pregnant for about eight weeks and, like most new mothers, is anxious to know whether she is having a girl or a boy.She wants to have an ultrasound immediately so she can find out.What can you tell Eesha?

A)An ultrasound cannot provide information about the sex of a baby until 32 weeks into the pregnancy.
B)At this stage, rudimentary structures have yet to be formed, so you cannot yet know anything about the embryo's sex.
C)At this point only an indifferent gonad has developed, so you cannot yet tell from an ultrasound whether the embryo is a girl or a boy.
D)All basic structures are formed and visible at this point, including the sex organs, so you can definitely ask the ultrasound technician to tell you whether you have a girl or a boy.

Question 17

Which disease can be contracted from cat feces?

A)rubella
B)toxoplasmosis
C)herpes
D)toxic plasmosis

Question 18

During the second month of prenatal development, what does the embryo begin to look like?

A)more like a human, and the sex of the embryo is clearly identifiable externally
B)like a small ball, but the sex of the embryo is not yet identifiable externally
C)less like a ball, and the sex of the embryo is clearly identifiable externally
D)more like a human, but the sex of the embryo is not yet clearly identifiable externally

Question 19

What does the developing embryo depend on for its metabolic functions?

A)the amnion
B)the mesoderm
C)the ectoderm
D)the placenta

Question 20

Yusuf is a chef and applying professional standards for handling food products in a safe and sanitary way is second nature to him.Recently, his pregnant wife has taken over their meal preparations.Given the pregnancy, what foods would Yusuf be concerned about his wife preparing?

A)unprocessed grains
B)unwashed leafy greens
C)raw meat and poultry
D)dried and ground hot peppers

Question 21

What parts of the body does the endoderm give rise to?

A)the bones, the muscles, and the circulatory system
B)the nervous system, the skin, and hair
C)the lungs and the digestive system
D)the nervous system, the lungs, and hair

Question 22

When does the embryo/fetus assume a human appearance, kick strongly enough that the mother can detect it, have a heartbeat that can be detected with a stethoscope, and have a hardening skeleton?

A)8 weeks
B)16 weeks
C)20 weeks
D)25 weeks

Question 23

What effect does prenatal malnutrition have on the developing child?

A)only short-term, immediate effects on birth weight
B)no short-term effects, but long-term effects on growth and intelligence
C)both short-term and long-term effects, with specific effects depending on adequacy of the infant's diet after birth
D)no short-term or long-term effects, due to protection infants have because they can extract all nutrients they need from the mother

Question 24

Maria and Sue are best friends, and so when Maria contracts rubella, Sue catches it from her.At the time they are sick with the disease Maria is 6 weeks pregnant and Sue is 7 months pregnant.What is the most likely outcome in this situation?

A)Sue's baby will be more likely than Maria's baby to have congenital defects as a result of their mothers' rubella.
B)Maria's baby will be more likely than Sue's baby to have congenital defects as a result of their mothers' rubella.
C)Both babies will have congenital defects as a result of their mothers' rubella.
D)Neither baby will have congenital defects as a result of their mothers' rubella.

Question 25

All children with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder have a number of developmental issues.Which of the following is an issue associated with this disorder?

A)impulsivity, acting out when frustrated, being easily distracted, and failing to understand the consequences of their actions
B)structural anomalies in the brainstem
C)cognitive resistance to academic interventions
D)very high volume of white matter in the brain

Question 26

Jennifer is pregnant and tells her husband that she has felt the baby kick for the first time.Based on this information, which trimester of pregnancy is Jennifer in?

A)the first trimester
B)the second trimester
C)the third trimester
D)the first trimester of childbirth

Question 27

Which of the following is more dangerous to the developing child during the fetal period or at birth, rather than during the embryonic period?

A)rubella
B)thalidomide
C)syphilis
D)toxoplasmosis

Question 28

Which milestone is reached by the developing fetus between 22 and 28 weeks post-conception?

A)The heart and circulatory system begin functioning.
B)Spontaneous movement is apparent for the first time.
C)Sex differentiation and sex organ development is now completed.
D)The minimal age of viability has been reached.

Question 29

Which statement best describes the fertilized ovum at the time of implantation?

A)It has already undergone several mitotic divisions.
B)It has already undergone several meiotic divisions.
C)It has begun to undergo apoptosis.
D)It has begun to undergo meiosis.

Question 30

Suppose that Baby P received two X chromosomes at the time of conception.Based on this information, what can you conclude regarding the development of Baby P's reproductive system during the third month of the pregnancy?

A)Testosterone will be secreted, producing a male reproductive system.
B)No hormones will be secreted, producing a male reproductive system.
C)Estrogen will be secreted, producing a female reproductive system.
D)No hormones will be secreted, producing a female reproductive system.

Question 31

A number of studies have investigated the link between a mother's emotional state during her pregnancy and the risk to her developing baby.In general, what seems to be the consensus regarding this link?

A)Isolated stressful episodes are the most frequent cause of complications.
B)Prolonged, severe stress increases the risk of complications.
C)There is no influence because there is no direct connection between the mother's nervous system and that of her fetus.
D)Any stress can cause serious complications in a fragile fetus, especially during the last trimester of the pregnancy.

Question 32

What parts of the body does the ectoderm give rise to?

A)the bones, the muscles, and the skin
B)the nervous system, the skin, and hair
C)the lungs, the circulatory system, and the digestive system
D)the nervous system, the lungs, and hair

Question 33

At what point during pregnancy is the age of viability reached?

A)the first trimester
B)the beginning of the second trimester
C)the beginning of the third trimester
D)the end of the third trimester

Question 34

By four days after conception, approximately how many cells does the zygote contain?

A)16
B)60 to 80
C)200 to 500
D)more than 1000

Question 35

What is the primary reason that teratogenic agents cause serious malformations of organs and systems during the period of the zygote and/or embryo?

A)the size of the zygote and/or embryo
B)the rapid differentiation of organs and systems taking place during that time
C)teratogenic agents being able to pass through the placenta only during that period
D)the immune system and liver not yet functioning

Question 36

Sarina unknowingly ate fish contaminated with PCBs throughout her pregnancy.She breastfed her infant for the first year.Once in school, how is her child likely to behave?

A)Her child will be overwhelmed by demands and unable to regulate emotion.
B)Her child will be irritable and distracted by the other children.
C)Her child will be apathetic and uninterested in classroom activities or social relationships.
D)Her child will perform poorly on complex tasks and verbal reasoning.

Question 37

Which of the following outcomes is a consequence of exposure to sexually transmitted diseases such as syphilis, genital herpes, and AIDS?

A)no effect
B)infection during the birth process but no serious deformities
C)deformities, brain damage, death
D)no serious effects on fetal development or the newborn

Question 38

What is the order of the three major phases of prenatal development?

A)germinal, fetal, embryonic
B)fetal, germinal, embryonic
C)embryonic, fetal, germinal
D)germinal, embryonic, fetal

Question 39

Newborns of mothers who do not smoke but of fathers who do smoke tend to be smaller than average.Why?

A)Fathers who smoke create unnecessary stress for their pregnant partner, and this increased level of stress affects fetal growth.
B)Smoking in the father alters his DNA, which differentially affects fetal growth.
C)Fathers who smoke tend to be smaller than average themselves.
D)The pregnant woman becomes a "passive smoker" when living with a smoker.

Question 40

Use of opioid drugs such as codeine and heroin during pregnancy has been shown to have which of the following effects on the developing child?

A)moderate structural abnormalities to the child's heart and circulatory system
B)addiction, lower birth weight, preterm delivery, slower growth rate
C)genetic damage that will be passed on to the child's own offspring
D)no identifiable effects because neither drug crosses the placenta

Question 41

Whose genotype is most closely linked to placental development?

A)the mother's
B)the new child's
C)the father's
D)the maternal grandmother's

Question 42

A father with heavy exposure to alcohol and drugs is more likely to have a baby born with low birth weight or physical defects, even if the expectant mother did not drink alcohol or use drugs during the pregnancy.Why?

A)Certain substances bind directly to live sperm and cause mutations to the sperm.
B)There is no known reason.
C)Genetic risk for addiction in fathers is associated with higher prenatal risk.
D)Drug use and abuse with a stable partner causes damaging changes to the woman's reproductive tract that are passed to the infant.

Question 43

Exposure to diethylstilbestrol in utero was shown to have what effect?

A)differentially affected males
B)differentially affected females
C)both males and females equally affected
D)neither males nor females affected

Question 44

What parts of the body does the mesoderm give rise to?

A)the bones, the muscles, and the skin
B)the nervous system, the skin, and hair
C)the lungs and the digestive system
D)the bones, the muscles, and the circulatory system

Question 45

How do pregnancies in older mothers compare to those in younger mothers?

A)Older first-time mothers are less likely than mothers in their 20s to experience difficulties with their pregnancies.
B)Most older mothers have normal pregnancies and healthy babies.
C)Compared to younger mothers, older mothers are less likely to receive adequate prenatal care early in their pregnancies.
D)Delaying childbearing until after age 35 decreases a woman's risk of spontaneous abortion or miscarriage.

Question 46

When do the most dramatic changes in organ systems and body structures take place during pregnancy?

A)the period of the zygote
B)the period of the embryo
C)the period of the fetus
D)Development is dramatic across all periods.

Question 47

What congenital abnormalities are associated with prenatal exposure to toxoplasmosis?

A)heart defects
B)deafness
C)deformed arms and legs
D)blindness and central nervous system damage

Question 48

When Morgan discovered that she was pregnant, she tried hard to take special care of herself to ensure that she and her new baby would be healthy.She started taking very high doses of vitamin supplements to ensure that both she and the baby had ideal nutrition.Is Morgan doing the right thing?

A)No, because she will probably have a spontaneous abortion.
B)No, because there are risks associated with ingesting too much of some vitamins.
C)Yes, but she should also increase her mineral supplements.
D)Yes, she is doing the best thing to ensure a healthy pregnancy and a healthy infant.

Question 49

Which of the following is accurate regarding a 28- to 32-week-old fetus?

A)Fine motor development is well underway.
B)Heart activity is somewhat erratic.
C)Auditory cortex is developing, and the fetus is learning to recognize sounds, including speech.
D)Pulmonary alveoli are fully mature.

Question 50

Suppose that Baby T received two X chromosomes at the time of conception and, high levels of testosterone are released during the third month of the pregnancy.Based on this information, what can you conclude regarding the development of Baby T's reproductive system?

A)Baby T will develop a female reproductive system.
B)Baby T will develop aspects of both male and female reproductive systems.
C)Baby T will not develop reproductive organs.
D)Baby T will develop a male reproductive system.

Question 51

What disease is associated with a microscopic organism that cannot cross the placenta until the 18th prenatal week but is associated with serious eye, ear, bone, heart, or brain damage if it does cross?

A)rubella
B)toxoplasmosis
C)HIV/AIDS
D)syphilis

Question 52

What is the approximate survival rate of zygotes?

A)90 percent
B)50 percent
C)25 percent
D)10 percent

Question 53

What event marks the end of the period of the zygote?

A)The embryonic disk first appears.
B)The zygote divides for the first time.
C)The blastocyst is completely implanted in the uterine wall.
D)The sperm cell penetrates the ovum and the zona pellucida begins to thicken.

Question 54

Suppose that Baby Q received both an X and a Y chromosome at conception, but no testosterone is released during the third month of the pregnancy.Based on this information, what can you conclude regarding the development of Baby Q's reproductive system?

A)Baby Q will develop a female reproductive system.
B)Baby Q will develop a male reproductive system.
C)Baby Q will develop aspects of both male and female reproductive systems.
D)Baby Q will not develop reproductive organs.

Question 55

Ana, a moderate smoker and moderate drinker, has just discovered that she is pregnant.What does most research suggest that Ana should do to make sure that her baby develops appropriately?

A)Quit both smoking and drinking immediately.
B)Quit smoking, and cut back on drinking to a social level only.
C)Quit drinking, but keep smoking so stress levels stay manageable.
D)Both are acceptable since both are in moderation.

Question 56

What does evidence on the effects of alcohol consumption during pregnancy strongly suggest?

A)Although alcohol can be harmful to the developing fetus, moderate drinking may help lower the mother's blood pressure during the pregnancy; therefore, it prescribed in some circumstances.
B)Only the children of chronic alcoholics will suffer long-term effects.
C)The effects of prenatal exposure to alcohol are clearly dose-related, but there is no known safe level of consumption.
D)Social drinking poses no threat to the developing fetus, and mothers should just relax and enjoy as desired.

Question 57

What is the term for the fine body hair that appears during the fetal period?

A)vernix
B)lanugo
C)lanix
D)vernigo

Question 58

Cigarette smoking by pregnant women is associated with an increased risk of which congenital abnormalities?

A)intellectual disability and heart defects
B)increased risk for cervical or testicular cancer
C)fetal growth retardation and neonatal death
D)phocomelia and low birth weight

Question 59

What is the approximate period of the zygote in a pregnancy?

A)the first 24 hours
B)the first two weeks
C)the third through the eighth week
D)the ninth week through to birth

Question 60

Regular use of marijuana during pregnancy has been found to result in which of the following effects on the infant?

A)physical malformations, particularly of the face and neck
B)newborns who are addicted and who therefore experience withdrawal symptoms after birth
C)tremors, sleep disturbances, and apathy
D)an increased lifetime risk for cancer

Question 61

What does the third through the eighth weeks of a pregnancy mark?

A)the germinal period
B)the fetal period
C)the critical period
D)the embryonic period

Question 62

What are the typical characteristics of babies born with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder ?

A)malformed arms and legs, heart defects, and hyperactivity
B)blindness, deafness, and malformed hands
C)a small head, unusual facial features, intellectual disabilities, and hyperactivity
D)heart defects, intellectual disabilities, and blindness

Question 63

Beth has just had an ultrasound and is devastated to learn that although the placental membranes have grown, the embryonic disk has not.Given what you know about the survival rate of zygotes, although Beth is understandably distressed, should she be surprised?

A)Yes, because the survival rate is about 80 percent.
B)Yes, because the survival rate is about 50 percent.
C)No, because the survival rate is about 25 percent.
D)No, because the survival rate is about 10 percent.

Question 64

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is accurate?

A)Infant immune systems are particularly robust and are better able to ward off HIV than are adult patients.
B)Improved methods for screening treatment have reduced prenatal transmission of HIV to 20 percent in Europe and North America.
C)HIV transmission to infants no longer poses a risk due to effective antiretroviral therapies during the prenatal period.
D)HIV-infected mothers can transmit the disease to their infants during the pregnancy, while giving birth, or while breastfeeding.

Question 65

Of the following, which part of the body is susceptible to anytime malformations?

A)the lower extremities
B)the central nervous system
C)the heart and the circulatory system
D)the genitals

Question 66

Suppose that Baby J received both an X and a Y chromosome at the time of conception.Based on this information, what can you conclude regarding the development of Baby J's reproductive system during the third month of the pregnancy?

A)No hormones will be secreted, producing a male reproductive system.
B)Testosterone will be secreted, producing a male reproductive system.
C)Estrogen will be secreted, producing a female reproductive system.
D)No hormones will be secreted, producing a female reproductive system.

Question 67

What is the name of the point in prenatal development during which the zygote/embryo/fetus is most susceptible to environmental influences?

A)interval of critical assessment
B)mutation interval
C)age of viability
D)sensitive period

Question 68

What is the term for the white, cheesy substance that appears during the fetal period?

A)vernix
B)lanugo
C)lanix
D)vernigo

Question 69

In comparison to women who are between the ages of 18 and 35 when they conceive, what characterizes the environmental risks for the pregnancy of women who conceive before the age of 16?

A)increased rates of exposure to disease
B)decreased access to adequate prenatal care
C)increased access to quality nutrition
D)decreased complications during childbirth

Question 70

What is a teratogen?

A)a fertilized ovum that undergoes more rapid cell division than is typical for a zygote
B)any physical defect in an unborn child
C)any environmental agent that can adversely affect the developing baby
D)a genetic syndrome that occurs when two recessive genes are paired at conception

Question 71

Grace is a heavy drinker who has just discovered that she is four weeks pregnant.What is good advice for Grace regarding her drinking and the health of her unborn child?

A)quit drinking completely
B)cut back on her drinking, but there is no need to quit altogether
C)continue drinking as much as she likes, but take megadoses of vitamin C and protein supplements
D)abort the fetus, because it will most likely have already been severely damaged by her drinking

Question 72

What is the fetal period in a pregnancy?

A)the first 24 hours
B)the first two weeks
C)the third through the eighth week of the pregnancy
D)the ninth week through to birth

Question 73

During the embryonic period the genital ridge begins to differentiate into the male testes or the female ovaries.What does this differentiation require?

A)testosterone for males and estrogen for females
B)testosterone for males and nothing for females
C)nothing for males and estrogen for females
D)presence or absence of a Y chromosome

Question 74

What is one problem in understanding fetal alcohol spectrum disorder?

A)Children with FASD are not amenable to interventions.
B)It is difficult to identify and differentiate children with FASD from children with other disorders.
C)There are so few children with FASD to be examined.
D)The presentations of FASD correspond to only a very narrow range of symptoms.

Question 75

What is/are the primary change(s) that occur(s) during the third trimester of pregnancy?

A)the addition of organ systems
B)the primary differentiation of the sense organs
C)the size of the hands and feet
D)the fetus's weight and height

Question 76

Which of the following best characterizes a baby born at 28 weeks post-conception?

A)The baby would not be able to sense light or sound, but these would develop rapidly in the neonatal period.
B)The baby would not have nails, eyebrows, or scalp hair.
C)The baby would have reached the age of viability, but lung function would likely be compromised.
D)The baby would have reached the age of viability but have poor heart function.

Question 77

What is the embryonic period in a pregnancy?

A)the first 24 hours
B)the first two weeks
C)the third through the eighth week
D)the ninth week through to birth

Question 78

Of the following, which part of the body is vulnerable to teratogens only during early pregnancy?

A)the arms
B)the central nervous system
C)the eyes
D)the genitals

Question 79

Which of the following statements is the worst advice for pregnant women regarding the use of vitamin and mineral supplements?

A)Take large doses of vitamins and minerals to avoid problems such as spina bifida and anencephaly in your infant.
B)Take adequate amounts of folic acid as soon as you know you are trying to get pregnant, or know you are pregnant, to avoid neural tube defects.
C)Take adequate amounts of magnesium and zinc to improve functioning of the placenta and reduce some birth complications.
D)Take adequate amounts of iodine to ensure normal thyroid function and to avoid irreversible intellectual disabilities in your infant.

Question 80

When does the period of the zygote take place during prenatal development?

A)after implantation when the zygote first begins to differentiate
B)between conception of the new zygote and implantation in the uterus
C)after conception takes place and the zygote undergoes meiosis
D)after conception takes place and the zygote undergoes mitosis