Deck 10: Reentry Into the Community
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Deck 10: Reentry Into the Community
1
A risk assessment may be used to determine if an inmate is ready for release.
True
2
Reentry courts supervise exoffenders' return to the community and their adjustment to life after incarceration.
True
3
Parole is the continuation of correctional supervision in the community.
True
4
Which of the following is NOT one of the three concepts that comprise the foundation of parole?
A) custody
B) personal right
C) contract of consent
D) grace or privilege
A) custody
B) personal right
C) contract of consent
D) grace or privilege
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5
The U.S. Supreme Court requires a two-stage parole-revocation proceeding.
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6
Critics state that eliminating discretionary parole has had a major effect on lowering the national crime rate.
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7
In theory, parole boards evaluate an offender's progress toward ________ and readiness to abide by laws.
A) restoration
B) reintegration
C) rehabilitation
D) reentry
A) restoration
B) reintegration
C) rehabilitation
D) reentry
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8
One important effect of discretionary release is that the parole board can shorten a sentence imposed by a judge.
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9
Parole officers do not help offenders readjust to the community.
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10
A key figure in developing parole in the 1800s was Sir Walter Crofton, who administered British penal colonies in Tasmania and elsewhere in the South Pacific and later in England.
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11
In reentry courts, judges maintain active oversight of parolees they had originally sentenced.
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12
Only state governments and federal governments, not local governments, implement parole.
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13
Historically, few changes have been made in the way offenders are released from prison.
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14
Overall, exoffenders represent a greater risk to community safety than do other citizens.
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15
The broad discretionary power of the parole officer is disappearing.
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16
States retaining indeterminate sentences allow mandatory release by the parole board within the boundaries set by the sentence and the penal law.
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17
Currently, 30 U.S. states have some form of prerelease program designed to prepare inmates for reentry.
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18
Only felons are released on parole, not those convicted of misdemeanors.
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19
Parole in the United States evolved during the ________ century following the English, Australian, and Irish practices of conditional pardon, apprenticeship by indenture, transportation and the issuance of tickets- of-leave.
A) seventeenth
B) eighteenth
C) nineteenth
D) twentieth
A) seventeenth
B) eighteenth
C) nineteenth
D) twentieth
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20
Prior criminal record is not a criteria parole boards consider.
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21
The Second Chance Act of 2007 is designed to assist offenders with _______.
A) successful reentry into the community
B) chemical health programming while in prison
C) the dismissal of their case
D) DNA collection
A) successful reentry into the community
B) chemical health programming while in prison
C) the dismissal of their case
D) DNA collection
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22
According to your authors, home confinement falls into the category of ________ release.
A) discretionary
B) other conditional
C) expiration
D) supplementary
A) discretionary
B) other conditional
C) expiration
D) supplementary
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23
An inmate's eligibility for release to community supervision depends on requirements set forth by the law and _____________.
A) correctional administration for that jurisdiction
B) sentences imposed by the court
C) correctional policies and procedure
D) parole boards
A) correctional administration for that jurisdiction
B) sentences imposed by the court
C) correctional policies and procedure
D) parole boards
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24
Eligibility for an appearance before the parole board is a function of all the following items EXCEPT _______.
A) an inmate's conduct before prison
B) demographic data
C) statutory criteria
D) the individual sentence
A) an inmate's conduct before prison
B) demographic data
C) statutory criteria
D) the individual sentence
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25
There are five basic mechanisms for release from prison. Which of the following is NOT one of these mechanisms?
A) expiration release
B) discretionary release
C) unconditional release
D) mandatory release
A) expiration release
B) discretionary release
C) unconditional release
D) mandatory release
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26
Restrictions that parolees must legally obey after being released are referred to as ________.
A) exiting guidelines
B) conditions of release
C) parole regulations
D) postrelease policy
A) exiting guidelines
B) conditions of release
C) parole regulations
D) postrelease policy
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27
Which of the following is NOT a criticism of parole?
A) Release is tied to an elusive treatment success.
B) Parole increases the costs of corrections.
C) Parole boards are abusing their discretion.
D) Inmates were being held in "suspended animation."
A) Release is tied to an elusive treatment success.
B) Parole increases the costs of corrections.
C) Parole boards are abusing their discretion.
D) Inmates were being held in "suspended animation."
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28
Which of the following is NOT one of the major release criteria considered for a potential parolee?
A) prior criminal record
B) history of community adjustment
C) adequacy of parole plan
D) credit and driving records
A) prior criminal record
B) history of community adjustment
C) adequacy of parole plan
D) credit and driving records
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29
Parole officers are usually asked to play two roles: and .
A) cop; social worker
B) social worker; mentor
C) mentor; cop
D) cop; teacher
A) cop; social worker
B) social worker; mentor
C) mentor; cop
D) cop; teacher
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30
When discretionary release is used, the parole board's power is much like that of the ________.
A) jury
B) probation officer
C) prosecutor
D) sentencing judge
A) jury
B) probation officer
C) prosecutor
D) sentencing judge
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31
Which of the following was NOT part of Maconochie's classification for prisoners?
A) civil disabilities
B) strict imprisonment
C) labor on chain gangs
D) ticket-of-leave
A) civil disabilities
B) strict imprisonment
C) labor on chain gangs
D) ticket-of-leave
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32
American reformers such as , of the Elmira Reformatory in New York, began to experiment with the concept of parole by releasing inmates when their conduct showed that they were ready to return to society.
A) Sir Walter Crofton
B) Alexander Maconochie
C) John Augustus
D) Zebulon Brockway
A) Sir Walter Crofton
B) Alexander Maconochie
C) John Augustus
D) Zebulon Brockway
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33
Inmates who are released on ________ parole release no longer require further correctional supervision and cannot be returned to prison for their current offense.
A) unconditional
B) discretionary
C) expiration
D) mandatory
A) unconditional
B) discretionary
C) expiration
D) mandatory
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34
Based on the assumptions of indeterminate sentences and rehabilitative programs, which of the following types of release is designed to allow the parole board to release inmates to conditional supervision in the community when they are deemed ready to live as law-abiding citizens?
A) discretionary
B) conditional
C) mandatory
D) expiration
A) discretionary
B) conditional
C) mandatory
D) expiration
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35
Which of the following men was NOT one of the early pioneers of parole?
A) Sir Walter Crofton
B) Jeremy Bentham
C) Alexander Maconochie
D) Zebulon Brockway
A) Sir Walter Crofton
B) Jeremy Bentham
C) Alexander Maconochie
D) Zebulon Brockway
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36
Which is NOT a criteria that guides release decisions?
A) age and gender
B) insight into causes of past criminal conduct
C) history of community adjustment
D) physical, mental, and emotional health
A) age and gender
B) insight into causes of past criminal conduct
C) history of community adjustment
D) physical, mental, and emotional health
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37
Inmates that have "maxed out" are released ________.
A) unconditionally
B) with conditions
C) to a local jail
D) only if they completed treatment
A) unconditionally
B) with conditions
C) to a local jail
D) only if they completed treatment
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38
A major criticism of discretionary release is that it has shifted responsibility for many primary criminal justice decisions from a to a(n) .
A) prosecutor; parole board
B) prosecutor; judge
C) judge; parole board
D) parole board; judge
A) prosecutor; parole board
B) prosecutor; judge
C) judge; parole board
D) parole board; judge
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39
______________ release occurs when the sentencing judge requires a period of postcustody supervision in the community.
A) Unconditional
B) Discretionary
C) Probation
D) Mandatory
A) Unconditional
B) Discretionary
C) Probation
D) Mandatory
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40
For most of the twentieth century, the term ________ has referred to both a method of community supervision and a release mechanism.
A) reintegration
B) reentry
C) parole
D) probation
A) reintegration
B) reentry
C) parole
D) probation
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41
Which of the following is NOT one of the frequently applied options for a parole agency to invoke when a parolee has violated the conditions of his or her release?
A) Note the violation and increase supervision instead of revocation of parole.
B) Seek advice from the sentencing judge, but have no formal revocation hearing.
C) Note the violation, but take no official action.
D) Return the parolee to prison.
A) Note the violation and increase supervision instead of revocation of parole.
B) Seek advice from the sentencing judge, but have no formal revocation hearing.
C) Note the violation, but take no official action.
D) Return the parolee to prison.
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42
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding David's release?
A) He will be released unconditionally.
B) He will be released on parole.
C) He will be released on probation.
D) He will be released on pretrial status.
A) He will be released unconditionally.
B) He will be released on parole.
C) He will be released on probation.
D) He will be released on pretrial status.
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43
How was the conviction removed from Austin's record?
A) expungement
B) expiration
C) decay
D) dissolvement
A) expungement
B) expiration
C) decay
D) dissolvement
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44
Which of the following is NOT one of the measures of recidivism?
A) the time the offender spent in prison
B) the event (arrest, conviction, and parole revocation)
C) the duration of the period over which the measurement is made
D) the seriousness of the behavior
A) the time the offender spent in prison
B) the event (arrest, conviction, and parole revocation)
C) the duration of the period over which the measurement is made
D) the seriousness of the behavior
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45
What type of release mechanism was David released on?
A) expiration release
B) end of confinement release
C) discretionary release
D) probation release
A) expiration release
B) end of confinement release
C) discretionary release
D) probation release
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46
What was completed to determine how Anna will be supervised in the community?
A) risk assessment
B) research plan
C) development plan
D) supervision study
A) risk assessment
B) research plan
C) development plan
D) supervision study
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47
After Anna returned to prison, she was again released. What type of release was this?
A) reinstatement release
B) returned release
C) lucky release
D) second chance release
A) reinstatement release
B) returned release
C) lucky release
D) second chance release
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48
What was granted that excused Abby from her offense?
A) pardon
B) parole
C) probation
D) pass
A) pardon
B) parole
C) probation
D) pass
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49
Which of the following is NOT one of the possible harsh realities that a newly released prisoner may face once paroled?
A) barriers to success
B) the strangeness of reentry
C) unmet personal needs
D) missing physical safety of prison
A) barriers to success
B) the strangeness of reentry
C) unmet personal needs
D) missing physical safety of prison
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50
What is TRUE about David's incarceration?
A) He "maxed out."
B) He "opted out."
C) He escaped.
D) He was granted a pardon.
A) He "maxed out."
B) He "opted out."
C) He escaped.
D) He was granted a pardon.
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51
Only are released on parole.
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52
In response to criticism that the release decisions of parole boards are somewhat arbitrary, many states have adopted _________________.
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53
Qualification for parole officers varies by state, but what is usually a requirement?
A) bachelor's degree
B) past felony conviction
C) law enforcement experience
D) a law degree
A) bachelor's degree
B) past felony conviction
C) law enforcement experience
D) a law degree
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54
The effectiveness of corrections is usually measured by .
A) crime rates
B) rates of recidivism
C) probation rates
D) uniform crime rates
A) crime rates
B) rates of recidivism
C) probation rates
D) uniform crime rates
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55
What type of release was Anna granted?
A) discretionary release
B) expiration release
C) reinstatement release
D) required release
A) discretionary release
B) expiration release
C) reinstatement release
D) required release
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56
Which of the following is NOT one of the elements of successful reentry?
A) Develop a support group with other exfelons.
B) Get substance abuse under control.
C) Get a job.
D) Develop a support group of family and friends.
A) Develop a support group with other exfelons.
B) Get substance abuse under control.
C) Get a job.
D) Develop a support group of family and friends.
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57
Revocation seldom results from a single rules violation because _________.
A) prisons are far too crowded
B) there is often not enough evidence to find parolees in violation
C) parole officers don't care to violate
D) parole officers violate only offenders who commit person-related offenses
A) prisons are far too crowded
B) there is often not enough evidence to find parolees in violation
C) parole officers don't care to violate
D) parole officers violate only offenders who commit person-related offenses
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58
What type of supervision was Anna on while in the community?
A) parole
B) probation
C) pretrial
D) pardon
A) parole
B) probation
C) pretrial
D) pardon
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59
Parolees are aware that they must meet critical needs to make it in the community. Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of those critical needs?
A) get a job
B) get substance abuse under control
C) develop a support group
D) enroll in college classes
A) get a job
B) get substance abuse under control
C) develop a support group
D) enroll in college classes
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60
________ occurs when offenders are returned to parole after serving a time in prison because of a parole violation.
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61
There are six basic mechanisms for ________ from prison.
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62
Parole officers monitor offenders' behavior to ensure that parole ________ are met.
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63
Parole can be revoked for two reasons: (1) ________________ and (2) ________________.
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64
A(n) ________ is an official action of the executive branch of the state or federal government excusing an offense and absolving the offender from the consequences of the crime.
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65
for parole officers vary by state.
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66
Participation in vocational and educational programs in prisons has been ________ over the past decade.
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67
Expungement is a legal process that results in the ________ of a conviction from official records.
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68
________ release occurs after an inmate has served time equal to the total sentence minus good time, or to a certain percentage of the total sentence as defined by law.
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69
A(n) ________ assessment is used to help determine if an inmate is ready for release.
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70
________ is a legal process that results in the removal of a conviction from official records.
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71
When release is ________, the parole board's power is much like that of the sentencing judge.
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72
The release of an inmate from incarceration to postcustody supervision is known as ________ release.
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73
Unlike probation officers, who are generally employed by the county, parole officers are employed by the
_________.
_________.
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74
The Act of 2007 is a federal law that was enacted to ensure the successful return of prisoners to the community.
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75
Parolees are aware that they must meet critical to make it on the streets.
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76
When people fail on parole, their parole is ________, and they are returned to prison to continue serving their sentences.
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77
It is estimated that parole officers spend as much as 80 percent of their time in ________ work.
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78
________ have upheld bans on employment when the work has a connection to the criminal conduct of the offender.
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79
________ is the period of correctional supervision following release from prison.
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80
From 1920 to 1973, all states and the federal government used ________ sentencing, authorized discretionary release by parole boards, and authorized the supervision of prisoners after release.
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