Deck 8: Midwifery

Question 1

A client is in the second stage of labor and has been pushing for almost an hour. Which of the following interventions is the most appropriate for the client at this stage?

A)Offer clear fluids in between contractions.
B)Encourage ambulation.
C)Instruct the client to push with each contraction.
D)Encourage frequent changes in position.

Answer 1

Instruct the client to push with each contraction.

Question 2

A client at 38 weeks' gestation comes to the facility after experiencing leakage of clear fluid from the vagina without contractions. Premature rupture of membranes is suspected. Which of the following actions by the midwife would be inappropriate for a client with this condition?

A)Perform digital vaginal examination.
B)Administer ampicillin IV.
C)Assess the client's cervix and vaginal cavity through sterile speculum vaginal examination.
D)Order L/S ratio.

Answer 2

Perform digital vaginal examination.

Question 3

A midwife is monitoring a client in labor who is receiving intravenous oxytocin. The fetal heart rate monitor tracing reveals decelerations occurring 35 seconds after the onset of each contraction and continuously past the end of the each contraction. Which of the following is the priority action of the midwife?

A)Change the client's position to side-lying position.
B)Position the client to Trendelenburg position.
C)Stop the administration of oxytocin.
D)Administer oxygen.

Answer 3

Stop the administration of oxytocin.

Question 4

A midwife is assessing a client and her infant one week after delivery. The infant's birth weight was 7.5 pounds. Which of the following findings indicate that the infant is getting enough milk?
I. The mother reports that the infant is wetting 6 to 8 diapers a day.
II. The mother informs the midwife that the infant appears content between feedings.
III. The infant's weight is 6.8 pounds.
IV. The mother reports that the infant quietly swallows during breastfeeds.

A)I and II
B)I, II and III
C)I, II and IV
D)All of the findings indicate sufficient milk intake

Question 5

On assessment, the midwife notes that a female newborn has pink patches at the nape of the neck. The midwife informs the mother that these patches:

A)Occur more often in males than in females.
B)Are caused by an injury during labor.
C)Do not fade.
D)Disappear by school age without treatment.

Question 6

A client is given oxytocin for the induction of labor. The midwife should monitor the client for which of the following side effects of oxytocin?

A)Vomiting
B)Increased urine outflow
C)Hypertension
D)Bradycardia

Question 7

A midwife is monitoring a client who is in labor. Assessment findings reveal that the fetus is in LOA position. The midwife notes that the presenting part of the fetus is at 0 station. This finding indicates that:

A)The presenting part is at the perineum, and the fetal head is crowning.
B)The presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines, and the fetal head is engaged.
C)The presenting part is above the level of the ischial spines, and the fetal head is floating.
D)The presenting part has descended to within the pelvic inlet.

Question 8

A midwife is monitoring a client who was admitted to the labor and delivery unit about 5 hours ago. The midwife notes a cervical dilatation of 5 cm. The contractions occurring every 5 minutes usually last between 50 and 55 seconds. The client is in which phase of labor?

A)Latent phase
B)Active phase
C)Transition phase
D)Second stage of labor

Question 9

A midwife is monitoring a client with a cervical dilatation of 3 cm. The midwife determines that the client has contractions occurring every 3 minutes. Each contraction lasts for 50 seconds. The fetal heart rate is determined at 100 beats per minute. Which of the following is the priority action of the midwife?

A)Encourage the client to push with every contraction and to rest in between contractions.
B)Administer oxygen via face mask.
C)Document the findings as normal.
D)Encourage frequent change of position.

Question 10

A midwife is reviewing the fetal heart rate monitor tracing obtained from a G2P1 client who is in labor. The midwife notes decelerations at unpredictable times in relation to contractions. The midwife suspects which of the following conditions?

A)Cephalopelvic disproportion
B)Good fetal-well being
C)Uteroplacental insufficiency
D)Cord compression

Question 11

A midwife is teaching a female client how to perform a breast self-examination. On return demonstration, which of the following actions by the client indicates that further teaching is necessary?

A)The client uses the tips of her second, third and fourth fingers to press every part of her breast.
B)Using the right hand to examine the left breast, the client examines the entire breast using small circular motions in a spiral pattern.
C)In a supine position, the client places a folded towel under her right shoulder and puts her right hand behind her head. Using the left hand, she palpates her right breast.
D)In a standing position, the client places her hands on her hips and presses down firmly.

Question 12

A midwife is assessing four clients who recently gave birth through vaginal delivery. A part of the examination is measuring the fundal height. Which of the following clients needs further evaluation?

A)A client who gave birth 24 hours ago; the fundus is 1 fingerbreadth below the umbilicus.
B)A client who gave birth one hour ago; the fundus is at the level of the umbilicus.
C)A client who gave birth 72 hours ago; the fundus is 2 cm below the umbilicus.
D)A client who gave birth 10 days ago; the fundus is non-palpable.

Question 13

A female client is admitted to the facility due to alcohol abuse. During the first 24 hours, which of following interventions is the least appropriate?

A)Orient the client frequently.
B)Initiate seizure precautions.
C)Provide a quiet, non-stimulating environment.
D)Initiate bleeding precautions.

Question 14

There are many reasons why nurse midwives should be concerned with professional ethics. Which of the following is the main and critical purpose of applied professional ethics?

A)To foster professional identity.
B)To protect consumers and care providers.
C)To maintain internal regulation and avoid external regulation.
D)To signal professional maturity.

Question 15

A series of laboratory examinations are conducted for a client who is admitted to the facility for an annual checkup. Blood is drawn for serum electrolyte testing. Which of the following assessment findings requires further evaluation?

A)Sodium = 137 mEq/L
B)Potassium = 4.3 mEq/L
C)Chloride = 93 mEq/L
D)Bicarbonate = 27 mEq/L

Question 16

A midwife is managing the care of a 25-year-old postpartum client who gave birth 18 hours ago. No complications were noted during the labor process. The newborn is brought to the client for feeding and to have the mother and child bond for the night. The client says, "I'm too tired. Please get her back to the nursery, just for tonight. I need to get some sleep." Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the midwife?

A)Create a teaching plan for the mother that focuses on breast feeding.
B)Encourage the client to join a parenting skill class.
C)Accept the client's behavior as an indication that she is in the taking-in phase.
D)Accept the client's behavior as an indication that she is in the taking-hold phase.

Question 17

A midwife is assessing a mature female neonate born to a 21-year-old G3P2 client. Which of the following findings suggests that further evaluation and notification of the physician are necessary?

A)Birth length = 53 cm
B)Head circumference = 35 cm
C)Birth weight = 11 pounds
D)Chest circumference is 2 cm less than the head circumference.

Question 18

A client who gave birth to a healthy newborn experiences crying and expresses feelings of sadness and emptiness. The client delivered her baby 3 days ago. The midwife suspects that the client has:

A)Postpartum depression.
B)Postpartum blues.
C)Postpartum psychosis.
D)A normal behavior during the taking-hold phase.

Question 19

A midwife is receiving a client who gave birth an hour ago. Which of the following nursing interventions is the priority action of the nurse during the immediate postpartum period?

A)Obtain the client's blood glucose level.
B)Palpate for the height of fundus.
C)Order hemoglobin and hematrocrit tests.
D)Administer oxygen.

Question 20

A client had a cesarean delivery. The client informs the midwife that she intends to breastfeed her baby. Which of the following instructions is the most effective for a client who wants to breastfeed after a cesarean delivery?

A)"Use the football hold when breastfeeding."
B)"Choose the position that is most comfortable during breastfeeding."
C)"Breast feeding is withheld for the first 12 hours of life."
D)"Breastfeed the newborn every 4 to 8 hours."

Question 21

A client at 11 weeks' gestation complains of severe and extreme nausea and vomiting. During history taking, the midwife learns that the client vomits at least three times a day. An ultrasound is performed and reveals that the client is negative for hydatidiform mole and multiple pregnancy. The midwife suspects a case of hyperemesis gravidarum. The client is admitted for monitoring. Which of the following interventions is the least appropriate for the client?

A)Increase oral intake of fluids.
B)Administer 3,000 mL of Ringer's lactate.
C)Administer metoclopramide.
D)Monitor fluid intake and urinary output.

Question 22

A midwife tells a client who is trying to get pregnant to eat fresh fruits and green and leafy vegetables before conceiving. The midwife also recommends 400 mcg of folic acid a day. Once she gets pregnant, the midwife may recommend that the client increase her folic acid intake to 600 mcg per day during the first trimester. Which of the following is not a benefit of folic acid supplementation before and during pregnancy?

A)It prevents the formation of large but ineffective red blood cells.
B)It prevents neural tube defects.
C)It decreases the baby's risk for cleft lip or palate.
D)It ensures proper functioning of the thyroid gland.

Question 23

A client is in her 18th week of pregnancy. Which of the following psychosocial changes is expected at this time?

A)The client is ambivalent about being pregnant.
B)The client begins to imagine how she will feel during the delivery.
C)The client is excited to attend childbirth educational classes.
D)The client engages in nest-building activities.

Question 24

The midwife is creating a teaching plan for a program that encourages women to have their regular Pap smear. Which of the following groups of women is the midwife's priority?

A)Women with a history of HPV
B)Women with a history of genital herpes
C)Women who are on oral contraceptives
D)Women who have plans of conceiving within the next year

Question 25

A pregnant client asks the midwife about nonpharmacologic methods for managing labor pains. The midwife informs her about a method that is based on the idea that childbirth is a natural and joyful process. This method also stresses the importance of having the husband's support during the pregnancy, labor and early postpartum period. It also encourages walking during labor. The midwife is teaching which method to the client?

A)Lamaze method
B)Bradley method
C)Psychosexual method
D)Dick-Read method

Question 26

A client at 20 weeks' gestation asks the midwife if she will be able to breastfeed her baby after birth. The client has a history of type 2 diabetes, which has been well-controlled before and during the pregnancy. The client has a BMI of 34. Which of the following statements by the midwife is the most appropriate?

A)"Whether or not you can breastfeed your baby will depend on your blood glucose levels after birth."
B)"Mothers with type 2 diabetes are encouraged to breastfeed their babies after birth. Breastfeeding may also lower your need for insulin."
C)"You may not breastfeed your baby after birth. Insulin can cross into the breast milk and may cause your baby to develop hypoglycemia. Your baby may be nourished with formula milk."
D)"Breastfeeding is encouraged for women with type 2 diabetes. However, you may need to increase your insulin when nursing."

Question 27

A 21-year-old female client comes to the prenatal clinic after a home pregnancy test indicated a positive result. The client informs the midwife that her last menstrual period was on October 28, 2010. Using Nagele's rule, the client's expected date of birth is on:

A)August 4, 2011
B)July 21, 2011
C)July 4, 2011
D)August 21, 2011

Question 28

A client at 30 weeks' gestation complains of shortness of breath and an unusually rapid enlargement of the uterus. A tense uterus is noted by the midwife during assessment. Palpation of the small parts of the fetus and auscultating the fetal heart rate are difficult. The midwife suspects severe hydramnios. Which of the following interventions are appropriately included in the care plan?
I. Encourage ambulation.
II. Increase intake of foods high in fiber.
III. Perform amniocentesis.
IV. Administer indomethacin.

A)I and II
B)II and III
C)II, III and IV
D)All of the above

Question 29

A contraction stress test is ordered to a client at 35 weeks' gestation. After half an hour, the client's uterus begins to contract and the midwife observes three 40-second-long contractions in a 10-minute window. The client has two contractions within the next five minutes. The midwife notes that the fetal heart rate decreases toward the end of the contraction and afterward. This happends during more than 50% of the contractions. After stopping the oxytocin, which of the following is the next action of the midwife?

A)Administer oxygen.
B)Turn the client to the left side.
C)Assess the client's blood pressure.
D)Refer the client to a physician for further evaluation.

Question 30

A 20-year-old female client is pregnant for the first time. The client is a marathon runner and has been on a rigorous exercise and training program. The client asks the midwife if she could still exercise while pregnant. Which of the following statements by the midwife is the most appropriate for the client?

A)"You should stop exercising when pregnant as it can cause miscarriage or intrauterine growth retardation."
B)"If you are an athlete, you may proceed with your pre-pregnancy exercise program without limitations."
C)"You may continue exercising, but make sure to decrease the intensity of exercises. You may return to your pre-pregnancy exercise program two weeks after delivery."
D)"You should modify the intensity and type of your exercises. Non-weight-bearing exercises are recommended."

Question 31

A client has just given vaginal birth to an eight-pound baby boy. A few minutes after the delivery, the midwife observes lengthening of the umbilical cord and a gush of vaginal blood. The midwife interprets these observations as:

A)Signs of hemorrhage.
B)Signs of placenta previa.
C)Signs of placental separation.
D)Signs of retained placental fragment.

Question 32

A client with a multiple pregnancy is scheduled for cesarean delivery and is transported to the delivery operating room. The midwife reminds the staff nurse to position the client in which of the following positions in the operating room?

A)Left side-lying position
B)Semi-Fowler position
C)Supine position, with a wedge placed under the right hip.
D)Supine position, with a wedge placed under the left hip.

Question 33

A midwife is reviewing the laboratory tests of a client who is in labor. The laboratory findings include a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL and a hematocrit concentration of 34%. The midwife is correct if she determines that the client is at risk for which of the following during the postpartum period?

A)Anemia
B)Increased cardiac output
C)Postpartum infection
D)Hemorrhage

Question 34

Which of the following clients in labor is most likely considered for artificial induction of labor?

A)A client who gave birth to an Rh-positive baby and failed to get a RhoGAM after birth.
B)A client at 43 weeks' gestation who has been in the second stage of labor for one hour.
C)A client who ruptured her membranes 18 hours ago.
D)A client with severe hypertension.

Question 35

A client in labor is administered with an anesthetic through the spinal subarachnoid space. Which of the following actions by the nurse is the least appropriate when managing the client?

A)The midwife maintains the client flat on bed for 8 to 12 hours.
B)Inform the client that headaches may occur.
C)Monitor the client for hypertension.
D)Administer IV fluids.

Question 36

A midwife is teaching a 14-year-old girl about contraceptives. The client gave birth to a healthy baby girl three days ago. The midwife is correct when she says that the most effective way to protect against conception is through:

A)Natural family planning.
B)Abstinence.
C)Oral contraception.
D)Surgical methods.

Question 37

A midwife is assessing four female clients with signs and symptoms involving the reproductive system. All clients are engaging in heterosexual sexual relationships. The midwife requires identification and treatment of sexual partners of all of the following clients except:

A)A client diagnosed with genital herpes.
B)A client diagnosed with chlamydia.
C)A client diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis.
D)A client with hepatitis B.

Question 38

A midwife is assessing the fertility of couples who have been trying to conceive for a period of time without success. Which of the following couples has primary infertility?

A)A couple engaging in unprotected sex for half a year. No previous conceptions are reported.
B)A couple engaging in unprotected sex for one year. A previous conception is reported.
C)A couple engaging in unprotected sex for one year. No previous conceptions are reported.
D)A couple engaging in unprotected sex for half a year. A previous conception is reported.

Question 39

Which of the following female clients has the greatest risk for uterine fibroids?

A)A 30-year-old Chinese American who has a BMI of 30 and smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day.
B)A 43-year-old Caucasian who has a BMI of 32 and smokes 2 packs of cigarettes daily.
C)A 25-year-old Black American who has a BMI of 32; cigarette smoking is denied.
D)A 25-year-old of Meditteranean descent who has a BMI of 30; cigarette smoking is denied.

Question 40

A couple is considering artificial insemination after the man fails to respond to medications that intend to increase his sperm count. Which of the following statements about artificial insemination is false?

A)A donor's sperm can be used.
B)The sperm is instilled into the female reproductive tract one day after ovulation.
C)It involves selective termination of gestational sacs.
D)The sperm is instilled into the cervix or uterus.

Question 41

Li, a 63-year-old Chinese immigrant, is extremely agitated today. Which activity do you expect the licensed nurse will recommend?

A)Competitive sports
B)Bingo
C)Trivial Pursuit
D)Daily walks

Question 42

What structure in your body most resembles a pinecone?

A)Pineal gland
B)Testicle
C)Spleen
D)Coniferous

Question 43

Lippett, age 66, is experiencing sensory and perceptual problems that affect her right visual field (right homonymous hemianopia) because of stroke. When placing a meal tray in front of Mrs. Lippett, the medical assistant should:

A)Place all the food on the right side of the tray
B)Before leaving the room, remind the client to look all over the tray
C)Place food and utensils within the client's left visual field
D)Stay with the client and periodically draw her attention to the food on the right side of the tray to prevent unilateral neglect

Question 44

Which of the following factors contributes to constipation?

A)Excessive exercise
B)High fiber diet
C)No regular time for defecation daily
D)Microbes in food and water

Question 45

Clients with osteoarthritis may be on bed rest for prolonged periods. When working with said clients, the nursing assistant is aware that she should:

A)Encourage coughing and deep breathing and limit fluid intake.
B)Provide only passive range of motion and decrease stimulation.
C)Have the client lie as still as possible and give adequate massage.
D)Turn the client every 2 hours and encourage coughing and deep breathing.

Question 46

Which of the following statements is true about implementing an advanced directive?

A)The directive is applicable to a client who can understand and make choices
B)The physician has evaluated the wishes as expressed in the document to determine what the client may want or not want
C)The relatives will be given the legal right to decide for the client's condition
D)Advance directives mean do not resuscitate orders (DNRs)

Question 47

Flexion has what effect on the angel of a joint?

A)Decreases
B)Rotates
C)Inverts
D)Increases

Question 48

Kristine (RN) is orienting Shella, the new certified medical assistant, to the unit. Kristine mentions that sometimes culturally diverse clients who speak a different language are admitted to their unit. In communicating with these clients, Shella is aware that she should:

A)Speak loudly and slowly.
B)Stand close to the client and speak slowly.
C)Ask an interpreter to facilitate communication.
D)Speak to the client and family together to increase the chances that the topic will be understood.

Question 49

If a client comes to you with poor balance issues, then they are probably having issues with what system?

A)Vestibular
B)Brain
C)Feet
D)Respiratory

Question 50

Which of the following is a correct statement about binders?

A)A breast binder can be applied for breastfeeding mothers to relieve discomfort
B)Straight abdominal binders are applied while the client is sitting on a chair
C)The double T-binder is specifically used for male clients
D)When securing a straight abdominal binder, help the client in a side-lying position to close it at the back using safety pins

Question 51

What should be the first action to help a client who is bleeding from the left forearm?

A)Lower the body part.
B)Apply pressure to the brachial artery.
C)Apply direct pressure to the wound.
D)Cover the person.

Question 52

You are a client who just had an abdominal surgery with coughing and deep breathing. Which of the following is not a correct procedure?

A)The client inhales through pursed lips.
B)The client sits in a comfortable sitting position.
C)The client inhales deeply through the nose.
D)The person holds a pillow over the incision.

Question 53

Melrose (CNA) is taking care of Mr. Wilkins, a COPD client who is on oxygen therapy. Her knowledge about oxygen flow rates is important in order to provide efficient and safe nursing care to her client. Which of the following signifies her true understanding of oxygen flow rates?

A)She can check the flow rate.
B)She knows that the flow rate is measured in milliliters (ml).
C)She knows that the flow rate is the amount of oxygen given in 1 minute.
D)She knows that the flow rate is the same for all persons.

Question 54

Using the principles of standard precautions, the nurse assistant would apply gloves when performing which of the following procedures?

A)Providing back massage
B)Feeding a client
C)Providing hair care
D)Providing oral hygiene

Question 55

Kristine (CNA) is working in a geriatric screening clinic. Kristine would expect that the skin of normal elderly clients will demonstrate which of the following characteristics?

A)Dehydration, causing the skin to swell
B)Moist skin turgor
C)Skin turgor showing loss of elasticity
D)Over hydration, causing the skin to wrinkle

Question 56

The nurse assistant is helping a hemiplegic client get dressed. Which of the following is a correct way to help this client get dressed?

A)Undress the client's weak or involved extremity first.
B)Undress the upper extremity first, then the lower extremity.
C)Undress the client's non-involved extremity last.
D)Dress the weak or most involved extremity first.

Question 57

You are assisting the nurse in collecting a urine specimen from a client who has been catheterized. When the urine begins to flow through the catheter, you will help:

A)Inflate the catheter balloon with sterile water.
B)Place the catheter tip into the specimen container.
C)Connect the catheter into the drainage tubing.
D)Place the catheter tip into the urine collection receptacle.

Question 58

The nurse assistant would expect a client diagnosed with hypertension to report which common symptom?

A)Fatigue
B)Headache
C)Nosebleeds
D)Flushed face

Question 59

Gonzales was advised by his doctor to limit salt intake because of his hypertension. Which of the following dietary practices will help him reduce his sodium intake?

A)Increasing the use of dairy products
B)Using an artificial sweetener in coffee
C)Avoiding boxed and instant foods
D)Using catsup for cooking and flavoring foods

Question 60

Lippett, age 66, is experiencing sensory and perceptual problems that affect her right visual field (right homonymous hemianopia) because of stroke. When placing a meal tray in front of Mrs. Lippett, the nurse assistant should:

A)Place all the food on the right side of the tray.
B)Before leaving the room, remind the client to look all over the tray.
C)Place food and utensils within the client's left visual field.
D)Stay with the client & periodically draw her attention to the food on the right side of the tray to prevent unilateral neglect.

Question 61

Ricketts has chronic gouty arthritis. The diet appropriate for Mrs. Ricketts would include:

A)Aged cheese, broiled chicken, and pasta
B)Low fat milk, green salad, citrus fruits
C)Mackerel, meat extracts, anchovies
D)Sweetbreads, steak with gravy, scallops

Question 62

One evening, Lizbeth suddenly begins running up and down the hall. She strips off her clothing and strikes out widely at anyone she sees. All of the following interventions would be appropriate except:

A)Restrain the patient.
B)Call for the assistance of at least three staff members.
C)Clear the area of other patients.
D)Call the nurse for the administration of a prn drug.

Question 63

The most appropriate time for the nurse assistant to obtain a sputum specimen is:

A)Early in the morning.
B)After the client eats a light breakfast
C)After aerosol therapy
D)After back tapping and back massage

Question 64

Studies have shown that about 40% of patients fall out of bed despite the use of side rails; this has led to which of the following conclusions?

A)Side rails are ineffective.
B)Side rails should not be used.
C)Side rails are a deterrent that prevent a patient from falling out of bed.
D)Side rails are a reminder to a patient not to get out of bed.

Question 65

The most common injury among elderly persons is:

A)Heart attack
B)Hip fracture
C)Increased incidence of gallbladder disease
D)Urinary tract infection

Question 66

Which of the following is the most important risk factor for development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

A)Cigarette smoking
B)Occupational exposure
C)Air pollution
D)Genetic abnormalities

Question 67

An incontinent elderly client frequently wets his bed and eventually develops redness and skin excoriation at the perianal area. The best care goal for this client is to:

A)Make sure that the bed linen is always dry.
B)Frequently check the bed for wetness and always keep it dry.
C)Place a rubber sheet under the client's buttocks.
D)Keep the client clean and dry.

Question 68

Angie is a disoriented client who frequently falls from the bed. Which of the following is the best intervention to prevent future falls?

A)Tell Angie not to get up from bed unassisted.
B)Put the call bell within her reach.
C)Put bedside commode at the bedside to prevent Angie from getting up.
D)Put the bed in the lowest position.

Question 69

Walsh scratches and picks at a wound in her right foot. Because she is diabetic, the nurse obtained a doctor's order to apply mitt restraints. You were delegated by the nurse to monitor Ms. Walsh after the restraints were applied. Which of the following are important to report to the nurse?

A)Her heart rate
B)Her respiratory rate
C)The appearance of the wound
D)If you feel a pulse in the restrained extremities

Question 70

The nurse aide identifies a reddened area that does not blanch over the client's sacrum. The nurse aide should

A)Massage the area four times each day.
B)Perform range-of-motion exercises with the client.
C)Keep the area covered with a sterile dressing.
D)Reposition the client regularly throughout the day.

Question 71

Jeremy (CNA) is assisting Mr. Shank walk in the hallway. After several steps, the client complained of light-headedness and suddenly fainted. What should be Jeremy's initial action?

A)Call the nurse to check on the client.
B)Bring the client as close to his body as fast as possible.
C)Lower the client to the floor.
D)Prevent the client from falling.

Question 72

When removing gowns and gloves, which of the following is inappropriate?

A)Wash gloved hands first.
B)Peel off gloves inside out.
C)Use the glove-to-glove, skin-to-skin technique.
D)Remove mask and gown before removing gloves.

Question 73

Which of the following is the most effective practice by caregivers and family when caring for a client with low resistance to infection due to cancer?

A)Allow two visitors only, at a time.
B)Wash hands thoroughly.
C)Wear masks in the client's room at all times.
D)Meticulous cleaning of the client's room.

Question 74

Macy, the new nurse aide, is about to take a client's rectal temperature as ordered by the nurse. Which of the following actions show that Macy is doing the procedure inappropriately?

A)Explaining the procedure to the client and assisting in the right-side lying position.
B)Dipping probe into liberal amount of lubricant applied to a tissue, covering the probe at least 1 to 2 inches.
C)With non-dominant hand, separating buttocks to expose anus; asking the resident to breathe slowly and relax.
D)With dominant hand, inserting thermometer probe gently into anus, aiming the probe in the direction of the umbilicus, which is 1-2 inches.

Question 75

Moore, a 69-year-old client, is emaciated. The nurse aide takes precautionary measures in order to prevent which of the following problems in skin integrity?

A)Blisters
B)Pressure sores
C)Reddening of the skin
D)Pustules

Question 76

All of the following are correct methods in obtaining blood pressure except:

A)Take the blood pressure reading on both arms for comparison.
B)Listen to and identify the phases of Korotkoff's sound.
C)Pump the cuff to around 50 mmHg above the point where the pulse is obliterated.
D)Observe procedures for infection control.

Question 77

A client is admitted to the unit with an order for hourly monitoring of blood pressure. The nurse aide finds that the cuff is too small. This will cause the blood pressure reading to be:

A)Inconsistent.
B)Low systolic and high diastolic.
C)Higher than what the reading should be.
D)Lower than what the reading should be.

Question 78

In order to get an accurate reading, how long should you wait after a client smokes or drinks coffee before taking his or her blood pressure?

A)15 minutes
B)30 minutes
C)1 hour
D)5 minutes

Question 79

The doctor orders for a "daily urine specimen to be sent to the laboratory" for Eileen, who was operated on for renal stones. Eileen has a Foley catheter attached to a urinary drainage system. How will you collect the urine specimen?

A)Remove urine from the drainage tube with a sterile needle and syringe and empty urine from the syringe into the specimen container.
B)Empty a sample of urine from the collecting bag into the specimen container.
C)Disconnect the drainage tube from the indwelling catheter and allow urine to flow from the catheter into the specimen container.
D)Disconnect the drainage from the collecting bag and allow the urine to flow from the catheter into the specimen container.

Question 80

Just as the nurse aide was entering the room, the client who was sitting on his chair begins to have a seizure. Which of the following must the nurse aide do first?

A)Ease the client to the floor.
B)Lift the client and put him on the bed.
C)Insert a padded tongue depressor between his jaws.
D)Restraint client's body movement.