Deck 1: Emergency Medical Technicians (EMT) Basic

Question 1

Access to the EMS includes…

A)Activation by citizens
B)Out -of -hospital care
C)Transition of care
D)All of the above

Answer 1

All of the above

Question 2

What are the two types of EMS medical direction?

A)On -radio and off -radio
B)On -line and off -line
C)Prescribed and non -prescribed
D)Standing and non -standing

Answer 2

On -line and off -line

Question 3

The role of an EMT in quality improvement includes:

A)Neat, legible, and accurate documentation
B)Conducting preventative maintenance
C)Gathering feedback from patients and hospital staff
D)All of the above

Answer 3

All of the above

Question 4

The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration Technical Assistance Program Standards for EMS include…

A)Integration of health services
B)Continuing education
C)Human resources
D)Only A & C

Question 5

Being an EMT can be a stressful job, Which of the following is/are example(s) of stressful situations that you might encounter as an EMT?

A)Flat tire
B)No lunch break
C)Infant or child trauma
D)Both B & C

Question 6

You recognize one of your fellow EMTs becoming more irritable towards their coworkers and is keeping to themselves whenever possible and complaining that they are not sleeping at night. What is your coworker showing signs of?

A)Stress
B)Domestic abuse
C)Dementia
D)Job satisfaction

Question 7

Exercising regularly, increasing carbohydrates, reducing sugar intake, and avoiding fatty foods are all examples of how you can do what?

A)Be asked to be in an EMT calendar
B)Keep stress under control
C)Ensure quick promotion
D)Become the envy of your coworkers

Question 8

A critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) should be held how soon after a major incident?

A)One week
B)10 days
C)24 -72 hours
D)A month

Question 9

What is the number one way to prevent transmission of infection or disease?

A)Wearing gloves
B)Practicing safe sex
C)Wearing eye protection and an isolation gown
D)Proper hand washing

Question 10

If you are an EMT and have an allergy to latex, what do you do when you have to don gloves?

A)Use latex gloves despite your allergy for protection
B)Use vinyl or nitrile gloves
C)You will have to quit your job and find a new profession
D)You will be restricted to desk duty

Question 11

If you are treating a patient known to have an airborne disease, what precaution(s) should you take?

A)All EMTs that treat the patient should wear HEPA respirators
B)The patient should be placed in isolation until the hazmat team arrives
C)You should place a surgical mask on the patient
D)You should place a HEPA respirator on the patient

Question 12

You are called to scene where the patient has been the victim of a violent act, When should you enter the scene?

A)Immediately, so you can render care
B)After law enforcement takes control of the scene
C)As soon as a family member of the victim says it is okay to enter the scene
D)EMTs do not respond to scenes of violence

Question 13

Why should EMTs wait to enter a scene with a patient that is the victim of violence until it is under the control of law enforcement?

A)The perpetrator may still be on the premises
B)Bystanders interfere with patient care
C)Family members interfere with patient care
D)All of the above

Question 14

What are some diseases of concern for pre -hospital personnel?

A)Diabetes, CHF, CAD
B)Syphilis, Meningitis, Herpes simplex
C)PVD, Dementia, Schizophrenia
D)Bipolar, Psychosis, Crohn's disease

Question 15

Deviation from the accepted standard of care that results in further injury to the patient is known as what?

A)Abandonment
B)Assault
C)Battery
D)Negligence

Question 16

Termination of care before completion or without assuring the continuation of care at the same or higher level (such as at a hospital) is known as what?

A)Abandonment
B)Assault
C)Battery
D)Negligence

Question 17

Consent that is assumed from a patient that is unconscious is known as what type of consent?

A)Informed consent
B)By proxy consent
C)Implied consent
D)Statutory consent

Question 18

In order to be able to give expressed consent a patient must be what?

A)Able to make a rational decision and be of legal age
B)A licensed driver
C)A high school graduate
D)An American citizen

Question 19

If proper consent is not obtained the EMT leaves themselves open to be charged with what?

A)Negligence
B)Assault
C)Battery
D)Both B & C

Question 20

A point that is distant from the midsagittal or median plane is known as what?

A)Medial
B)Proximal
C)Lateral
D)Distal

Question 21

What is the shock position?

A)Body supine with legs below the level of the heart
B)Body supine with legs level with the ground
C)Body supine with legs elevated 8 -12 inches
D)Body prone with legs elevated 8 -12 inches

Question 22

What is the imaginary line that is drawn vertically from the middle of the armpits to the ankles called?

A)Midline
B)Midclavicular line
C)Midaxillary line
D)Anatomical position

Question 23

The iliac crest, the pubis, and the ischium are bones that make up the:

A)Sternum
B)Jaw
C)Pelvis
D)Ankle

Question 24

The manubrium and xiphoid process make up the:

A)Sternum
B)Jaw
C)Pelvis
D)Ankle

Question 25

The tibia and fibula are bones that make up what?

A)The forearm
B)The elbow
C)The ankle
D)The lower leg

Question 26

What is the normal breathing rate for an adult?

A)8 -10 per minute
B)12 -20 per minute
C)21 -25 per minute
D)5 -8 per minute

Question 27

What type of muscles can be consciously controlled?

A)Voluntary
B)Involuntary
C)Cardiac
D)Smooth

Question 28

What is/are the function(s) of the musculoskeletal system?

A)To give to body shape
B)To protect internal organs
C)To provide for movement
D)All of the above

Question 29

The ability or tendency of an organism or a cell to maintain internal equilibrium by adjusting its physiological processes is known as what?

A)Histocompatible
B)Homologous
C)Homeostasis
D)Homeopathic

Question 30

How can a patient's pulse be characterized when performing an initial assessment?

A)Bounding or Calm
B)Weak or Strong
C)Irregular or Regular
D)Both B & C

Question 31

When should a patient be moved immediately?

A)If you can visualize no injuries to their neck or head
B)If there is a fire or chance of fire
C)Always, so they can be transported to the hospital quickly
D)Never, you should assess the patient from head -to -toe prior to moving them

Question 32

Proper body mechanics when lifting a patient include what?

A)Bending at the waist
B)Using your back to lift
C)Keeping the weight as close to your body as possible
D)Using non -slip gloves

Question 33

What is the name for the leaf -shaped structure that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing?

A)The larynx
B)The pharynx
C)The epiglottis
D)The uvula

Question 34

What is the name for the structure that is encompassed by the soft palate above and the epiglottis below?

A)The pharynx
B)The nasopharynx
C)The larynx
D)The oropharynx

Question 35

If no neck injury is suspected what technique should be used to open a patient's airway?

A)Jaw thrust
B)Head -tilt -chin -lift
C)Tongue -jaw lift
D)Heimlich maneuver

Question 36

While administering artificial ventilation to a patient, you hear a gurgling sound. What should you immediately do?

A)Transport the patient to the hospital
B)Turn the patient on their left side
C)Suction the patient
D)Place the patient in the shock position

Question 37

While filling out a report you make an error, how do you correct the error properly?

A)Use white out to cover the error and write the correct information on top of the white out
B)Draw a single line through the error, initial & date it then write in the correct information beside it
C)Scribble out the error so it is illegible, and then write in the correct information next to it
D)Throw the report away and start over with a clean report sheet

Question 38

When should you give a patient activated charcoal?

A)During a hypoglycemic episode
B)After a grand mal seizure
C)If they suffer 3rd degree burns to their lower extremities
D)they have been poisoned following emesis or when emesis is contraindicated

Question 39

When should you give a patient epinephrine?

A)If they are hypertensive
B)If they are hypoxic
C)If they are suffering an acute allergic reaction
D)During a myocardial infarction

Question 40

What class of medicine is aspirin?

A)Bronchodilator / anti -asthmatic
B)Narcotic analgesic / anti -emetic
C)Anti -psychotic / anti -depressant
D)Platelet inhibitor / anti -inflammatory

Question 41

What is/are common cause(s) of a compromised airway?

A)The tongue
B)Burns
C)Trauma
D)All of the above

Question 42

Emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and asthma are all types of what?

A)Congenital defects
B)Obstructive lung diseases
C)Side effects from alcohol poisoning
D)Geriatric diseases

Question 43

What of the following is true of capillaries?

A)The connect arteries to veins
B)They are found only in the hands and feet
C)They allow for the exchange of nutrients and waste at the cellular level
D)All of the above

Question 44

What is meant by systolic blood pressure?

A)It is the pressure exerted against the walls of arteries when the left ventricle contracts
B)It is the pressure exerted against the walls of arteries when the left ventricle is at rest
C)It is the pressure exerted against the walls of veins when the left ventricle contracts
D)It is the pressure exerted against the walls of veins when the left ventricle is at rest

Question 45

What organ secretes insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin?

A)The testes
B)The prostate
C)The kidneys
D)The pancreas

Question 46

What is the name for a substance secreted by an endocrine gland that has effects upon other glands or systems of the body?

A)Serum
B)Plasma
C)Hormone
D)Synovial fluid

Question 47

Where is the pituitary gland located?

A)At the base of the brain
B)In the neck
C)Behind the liver
D)Next to the gallbladder

Question 48

What is the score range of the Glascow Coma Scale?

A)3 to 15
B)0 to 12
C)4 to 20
D)1 to 10

Question 49

A patient you are assessing presents with complaints of vision that has suddenly blurred, difficulty swallowing, and is having trouble speaking. What are they showing the warning signs of?

A)Cardiac arrest
B)Grand mal seizure
C)Stroke
D)Alzheimer's disease

Question 50

Grand mal seizures are also known by what name?

A)Absence
B)Tonic -Clonic
C)Myoclonic
D)West syndrome

Question 51

You are assessing a patient who is complaining of hematemesis, dark stools, frequent diarrhea, and has orthostatic vital signs. These signs and symptoms indicate that your patient is suffering from what?

A)Esophageal cancer
B)Upper GI hemorrhage
C)Dysentery
D)Colon cancer

Question 52

You are assessing a patient who presents with complaints of progressive anorexia, abdominal bloating, diffuse abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, chills, and fever. These signs and symptoms indicate that your patient is suffering from what?

A)Appendicitis
B)Abdominal aneurysm
C)Bowel obstruction
D)Inguinal hernia

Question 53

You are assessing a patient who presents with complaints of acute onset right lower quadrant pain beginning around the umbilicus and is also complaining of nausea, vomiting, fever and anorexia. These signs and symptoms indicate that your patient is suffering from what?

A)Lower GI hemorrhage
B)Umbilical hernia
C)Pancreatitis
D)Appendicitis

Question 54

You are assessing a patient who presents with complaints of excruciating flank pain, difficulty urinating, hematuria, nausea, and vomiting. These signs and symptoms indicate that your patient is suffering what?

A)Enlarged prostate
B)Kidney stones
C)Appendicitis
D)Stomach ulcer

Question 55

You are assessing a patient who presents with complaints of colicky pain in the right upper quadrant that gets worse after they eat and is unresolved by antacids. These signs and symptoms indicate that your patient is suffering from what?

A)Appendicitis
B)Pancreatitis
C)Cholecystitis
D)Gastritis

Question 56

What is the major artery of the neck?

A)Brachial
B)Jugular
C)Carotid
D)Radial

Question 57

Difficulty breathing, anxiety, abnormal blood pressure, sudden onset of sweating, and squeezing, dull pressure to the chest are signs of symptoms of what?

A)Stroke
B)Hypoglycemia
C)Cardiac compromise
D)Panic attack

Question 58

What is known as a state of profound depression of the vital processes of the body?

A)Death
B)Shock
C)Mania
D)Coma

Question 59

Where can central pulses be located?

A)Pedal, Brachial
B)Radial, Posterior tibial
C)Dorsalis pedis, Radial
D)Carotid, Femoral

Question 60

What does the American Heart Association recommend the compression -to -ventilation ratio to be for all single rescuers to use for all victims from infants (not including newborns) through adults?

A)15:2
B)12:1
C)30:2
D)20:1

Question 61

Which of the following is/are pathway(s) for allergens to enter the body?

A)Ingestion
B)Absorption
C)Injection
D)All of the above

Question 62

What is/are questions that you should ask a patient who is a victim of a poisoning or overdose?

A)What was the substance?
B)What is your age?
C)How much do you weigh?
D)Both A & C

Question 63

What is the colloquial term for deliberately breathing in volatile substances to become intoxicated?

A)Chasing the dragon
B)Huffing
C)Smacking
D)Jonesing

Question 64

The long -term effects of abusing inhalants include what?

A)Rashes around the nose and mouth
B)Night sweats
C)Liver damage
D)Upper respiratory problems

Question 65

You are assessing a female patient who presents with complaints of lower abdominal pain, pain during movement, vaginal discharge, fever, and chills. These signs and symptoms indicate that your patient is suffering from what?

A)Spontaneous abortion
B)Ectopic pregnancy
C)Gonorrhea
D)Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

Question 66

You are assessing a male patient who presents with complaints of frequent urination, burning pain with ejaculation, occasional pain with defecation, fever, chills, nausea, and vomiting. These signs and symptoms indicate your patient is suffering from what?

A)Venereal Disease
B)Prostatitis
C)Benign Prostate Hypertrophy
D)Diverticulitis

Question 67

Difficulty breathing, anxiety, abnormal blood pressure, sudden onset of sweating, and squeezing, dull pressure to the chest are signs of symptoms of what?

A)Degree of frostbite they are suffering
B)The ambient temperature
C)Decreasing mental status or motor function
D)Their respiratory rate

Question 68

What is true of ventricular fibrillation?

A)It is the most common cause of deep vein thrombosis
B)It is the most common cause of stroke
C)It is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest
D)It is the most common cause of syncope

Question 69

If while assessing a patient you ask them to move their toes, what are you trying to assess?

A)Their motor function
B)Their level of consciousness
C)Their level of pain
D)Their sensory level

Question 70

You are assessing a patient that has a wound to their lower leg, you notice that the blood is dark red and is bleeding at a steady rate, what type of bleeding does this indicate?

A)Arterial
B)Superficial
C)Venous
D)Cardiac

Question 71

The principles of conduct and concerns for what is right or wrong, good or bad is the definition of what?

A)Standards
B)Ethics
C)Policy
D)The EMT code

Question 72

The EMT Code of Ethics was written in what year?

A)1981
B)1972
C)1985
D)1978

Question 73

What is the reason that a patient that is complaining of chest pain is given nitroglycerin?

A)It takes their mind of the chest pain
B)It dilates the bronchioles making it easier to breath
C)It dilates the coronary arteries easing blood flow
D)It dilates the pupils making it easier to see

Question 74

When assessing a patient you notice that their pupils do not react equally to light, what does this indicate?

A)Head injury
B)Respiratory distress
C)Hypoglycemia
D)Psychosis

Question 75

What should you measure to ensure that you select the proper length oropharyngeal airway for a patient?

A)From the teeth to the bottom of their neck
B)From the nose to the tip of their earlobe
C)From the corner of the mouth to the tip of their earlobe
D)From the chin to the tip of their earlobe

Question 76

You are assessing an unconscious patient and you suspect that they have an airway obstruction, what would be the most common cause of airway obstruction?

A)Emesis
B)Broken teeth
C)Foreign body
D)The tongue

Question 77

While assessing a patient's respiratory status you hear a harsh sound during inspiration. The correct term for this is what?

A)Rhonchi
B)Rales
C)Death rattle
D)Stridor

Question 78

What is a patient in danger of if they fracture their pelvis?

A)Never walking again
B)Severe internal bleeding
C)Using a rolling walker for mobility
D)None of the above

Question 79

While assessing a patient you notice that they are producing pink sputum, this indicates that they are suffering from what?

A)Shock
B)Esophageal cancer
C)Pulmonary edema
D)Tonsillitis

Question 80

What is the averge length of time a women who is in labor for the first time can expect to remain in labor?

A)3 to 6 hours
B)1 to 3 hours
C)6 to 10 hours
D)12 to 18 hours