Deck 2: Tabers

Question 1

A patient receives an injection of penicillin for a bacterial infection and while checking out from the office reports that she cannot breathe. On your assessment her respiratory rate is 26, her breath sounds are noisy, and she appears to be gasping. Among the first things you should do for this woman are: (select the one best answer)

A) Call her family to see if they are available to take her home.
B) Ask the patient to sit in the waiting room for a few minutes, to see if her breathing improves.
C) Walk with the patient in the waiting room while checking her oxygen saturation.
D) Call a code and administer subcutaneous atropine as soon as possible.
E) Call a code and administer subcutaneous epinephrine as soon as it is available.

Answer 1

Call a code and administer subcutaneous epinephrine as soon as it is available.

Question 2

A patient calls in from home to let you know she is having chest pain. It started about an hour ago and feels like a heavy weight on her chest. She is also feeling short of breath. You should:

A) Make an appointment for her to be seen sometime this week.
B) Make an appointment for her to be evaluated today.
C) Advise her to hang up, and call 911.
D) Advise her to sit by an open window to see if her symptoms improve with fresh air.
E) Advise her to walk up a flight of stairs to see if her symptoms improve.

Answer 2

Advise her to hang up, and call 911.

Question 3

An elderly, demented woman who is normally cooperative, socially engaged, and cheerful now appears withdrawn. She frowns when you talk to her, and tightens her facial muscles when you help her adjust to a new body position. Which of the following may explain her behavioral changes?

A) A urinary tract infection.
B) An injury.
C) Constipation.
D) A stroke
E) All of the above.
F) None of the above.

Answer 3

All of the above.

Question 4

Which of the following distinguishes neuropathic pain in the legs from intermittent claudication?

A) Intermittent claudication tends to occur at rest; neuropathic pain is worsened by walking or exercise.
B) Neuropathic pain is often worse at night; intermittent claudication tends to be brought on by exertion.
C) People with neuropathic pain have a rash on the parts of the body that are painful; people with claudication have normal skin color and texture.
D) People with claudication are more likely than people with neuropathy to have strong pulses in all four extremities.

Question 5

Which of the following are characteristic assessment findings in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

A) In DKA the respiratory rate is usually slower than normal.
B) People in DKA are typically hypervolemic.
C) Tight control of diabetes is a common cause of DKA.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.

Question 6

Which of the following is typically found in people with respiratory acidosis?

A) an arterial blood gas with a pH greater than 7.5
B) a respiratory rate greater than 24
C) an arterial blood gas with an elevated level of CO2 (carbon dioxide)
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 7

You observe an obese inpatient breathing while he is sleeping. From time to time the patient seems to stop breathing completely, and then to gasp loudly and snore while struggling to breathe. His breathing pattern suggests to you:

A) Obstructive sleep apnea
B) Nasal congestion
C) Asthma
D) Sepsis

Question 8

In the ICU if a person is receiving mechanical ventilation that is too rapid, she is likely to experience:

A) Liver damage
B) Kidney damage
C) Gastrointestinal bleeding
D) Pneumonia
E) Respiratory alkalosis

Question 9

You receive a test report for a patient in the ICU who has a low blood pressure and a very fast pulse rate. The patient's hemoglobin is 10 and hematocrit is 30 mg/dL. A reasonable explanation for this test result is:

A) Liver damage
B) Kidney damage
C) Abnormal bleeding
D) Pneumonia
E) Respiratory alkalosis

Question 10

One common complication of thrombocytopenia (an abnormally low platelet count) is:

A) Liver damage
B) Kidney damage
C) Abnormal bleeding
D) Pneumonia
E) Respiratory alkalosis

Question 11

Medication should always be given:

A) To the patient for whom it was prescribed
B) After confirming it is the correct medication
C) In the correct dosage
D) Via the indicated route
E) At the appointed time
F) All of the above
G) None of the above

Question 12

A relatively common cause of nutritional malabsorption caused by gluten allergy in the diet is commonly known as:

A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Pancreatitis
C) Peptic ulcer disease
D) Celiac disease
E) Esophageal reflux

Question 13

A common finding in a patient with chronic pain is:

A) Tachycardia
B) Tachypnea
C) Fever
D) Hypotension
E) All of the above
F) None of the above

Question 14

Which of the following is the LEAST LIKELY to cause chronic lung disease?

A) Working in a hospital
B) Urban air pollution
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Coal mining
E) Chronic exposure to chemical fumes

Question 15

Of the infectious diseases listed below, the most common cause of diarrhea in children is:

A) Rotavirus
B) Tetanus
C) Mumps
D) Measles
E) Otitis media

Question 16

Which of the following is characteristic of absence seizures?

A) Paralysis of an arm or a leg
B) Brief loss of awareness of one's surroundings
C) Vomiting
D) Headache
E) Tonic/clonic movements

Question 17

Which of the following parts of the body have the largest body surface area:

A) The torso
B) The head
C) The perineum

Question 18

A decubitus ulcer typically develops:

A) In the stomach
B) In the duodenum
C) On any compressed body part
D) As a result of a sexually transmitted disease
E) On the tongue or lips

Question 19

Life-threatening swelling of the lips, tongue or oral cavity after a bee sting is an example of:

A) Parotitis
B) Pharyngitis
C) Glossitis
D) Anaphylaxis
E) Ataxia

Question 20

Potential hazards of air travel include:

A) Exposure to respiratory viruses
B) Risk of deep venous thrombosis in the legs
C) Exacerbation of claustrophobia
D) Forgetting ones medications at home
E) All of the above
F) None of the above

Question 21

Sickle cell anemia is a genetically inherited disorder of red blood cells. It results from a mutation in which of the following proteins?

A) Albumin
B) Ceruloplasmin
C) Ferritin
D) Hemoglobin
E) Immunoglobulin A

Question 22

Which of the following disease processes is characteristic of a sickle cell crisis?

A) Autoimmune destruction of red blood cells
B) Blood clotting and tissue hypoxia
C) Bleeding
D) None of the above
E) All of the above

Question 23

Insulin is produced by:

A) Beta cells in the pancreas
B) Hepatocytes
C) Pneumocytes
D) Cardiomyocytes
E) Thrombocytes

Question 24

In a child with Type 1 diabetes who presents with ketoacidosis, which of the following is the most critical treatment:

A) Dextrose, given intravenously
B) Metformin, given orally
C) Insulin, given by subcutaneous injection
D) Insulin, given by intravenous injection
E) Liraglutide given by subcutaneous injection

Question 25

A diet that includes elevated quantities of total calories, glucose and fats promotes health in people with:

A) Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
B) Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
C) Coronary artery disease
D) Fatty liver disease (steatohepatitis)
E) All of the above
F) None of the above

Question 26

Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal recessive disorder. This means that an individual with sickle cell anemia:

A) Will pass the trait to all of his children
B) Will pass the trait to none of his children
C) May pass the trait to some of his children

Question 27

Some individuals who have serious childhood diseases display childish behaviors later in life when they become ill again. The resumption of immature behavior later in life is characteristic of:

A) Panic disorder
B) Regressive behavior
C) Delirium
D) Dementia
E) Schizophrenia

Question 28

Reckless or thoughtless disregard for the well-being of other people is characteristic of:

A) Schizophrenia
B) Bipolar depression
C) Antisocial personality disorder
D) Conversion disorder
E) Dementia

Question 29

After a long visit by her son a hospitalized woman appears to be well-oriented, calm, and attentive. Later that evening, she seems to be restless, confused, and hallucinating. This change in her mental status is typical of:

A) Delirium
B) Dementia
C) Narcissistic personality disorder
D) Depression
E) Normal aging

Question 30

A person who pretends to be ill, and is willing to undergo multiple unnecessary surgeries and procedures is most likely to have which of the following conditions:

A) Detachment
B) Munchausen syndrome
C) Tourette's syndrome
D) Avoidant personality disorder
E) Ambivalence

Question 31

A person with cirrhosis of the liver says he thinks his life-long struggle with alcohol contributed to his liver failure. You would best demonstrate the concept of "acknowledgment" for this individual by:

A) Listening to his concerns in a respectful and nonjudgmental manner.
B) Maintaining a guarded and detached affect toward him.
C) Expressing your ambivalence about his behaviors and their outcomes.
D) Providing the patient with the reassurance that everything will turn out for the best.

Question 32

After a cardiologist shows your client her angiogram and explains that she has three blocked arteries in her heart, your client becomes visibly agitated. She says, "That's impossible. I've never smoked and I don't have diabetes. You're wrong!" She says she will leave the hospital Against Medical Advice. Her response is an example of:

A) Munchausen syndrome
B) Reaction Formation
C) Denial
D) A conversion disorder
E) Separation anxiety

Question 33

As you approach a patient's private room, you hear him cursing repeatedly about the stress of his hospitalization. You knock and walk in and notice he is alone and talking to himself. He appears to be gnawing on his lip repeatedly, and frequently running his hand through his hair. You suspect he may have which of the following conditions?

A) Separation anxiety
B) Borderline personality disorder
C) Tourette's syndrome
D) Tonic-clonic seizures
E) Detachment

Question 34

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) Social withdrawal
B) Flat affect
C) Hearing voices that no one else can hear
D) All of the Above
E) None of the Above

Question 35

Mr. Anderson checks his mobile phone every few minutes to see how the stock market is doing. He also looks every few minutes for new text messages and e mails, then checks market prices again. His behavior suggests:

A) Avoidant personality disorder
B) Borderline personality disorder
C) Narcissistic personality disorder
D) Antisocial personality disorder
E) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Question 36

A 6 year old boy becomes anxious, irritable, and withdrawn whenever his mother drops him off at school. He says he feels home sick, and appears unable to enjoy the friendship of his peers or concentrate on school work. His behavior suggests:

A) Avoidant personality disorder
B) Borderline personality disorder
C) Narcissistic personality disorder
D) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
E) Separation anxiety

Question 37

A 65 year old foreign-born Registered Nurse, who is a strong team player and whose work is exemplary, has a chance meeting with her supervisor at a Continuing Education conference. Her supervisor expresses surprise that "she is still able to keep up" with her peers, and "still interested in nursing," because most older nurses "are put out to pasture" at her age. The supervisors comments suggest:

A) Racism
B) Sexism
C) Ageism
D) Detachment
E) Reaction formation

Question 38

For several months after a pregnancy that ends in miscarriage, a colleague appears to lose interest in work and family, and loses a lot of weight. She says she is always tired, cannot sleep well, and worries that she will never be able to have a family. She says she hasn't any interest in being social anymore, and often appears on the verge of tears. You are concerned she may have:

A) Reaction formation
B) Characteristics of major depression
C) Panic disorder
D) Regressive behavior
E) Ambivalence

Question 39

Of the following, the best example of unwarranted reassurance is:

A) Advising a school-age child that he will likely make new friends in class.
B) Suggesting that an alcohol-abusing man participate in a health and wellness program.
C) Telling the family of a terminally ill patient that they can expect he will make a full recovery.
D) Coaching a reluctant patient on the potential benefits of vaccination.
E) Offering "tough love" to a non adherent client.

Question 40

When it is time to make decisions, Adele says she struggles. She can envision outcomes from her decisions that may be positive, and many that are negative, and she typically struggles to make up her mind. Adele's difficulties, which keep her repeatedly from making both simple and hard choices are typical of:

A) Ambivalence
B) Tourette's syndrome
C) Separation anxiety
D) Delirium
E) Acknowledgment

Question 41

A lifelong pattern of criminal behavior and disregard for the well-being of others is compatible with which of the following nursing terms?

A) Conversion disorder
B) Post-traumatic stress disorder
C) Munchausen syndrome
D) Avoidant personality disorder
E) Antisocial personality disorder

Question 42

On their way to a winter Holiday party, several members of a family experience a devastating automobile crash, complicated by multiple injuries. After the crash the driver of the car says he has terrifying nightmares and flash backs, and becomes visibly anxious whenever car travel is discussed. The driver is showing symptoms of:

A) Borderline personality disorder
B) Schizophrenia
C) Separation anxiety
D) Post-traumatic stress disorder
E) Narcissistic personality disorder

Question 43

Sofia completes her military service and earns an Honorable Discharge. She found her office job in the Navy to be satisfying and rewarding. She never faced combat or knew any close friends who experienced battlefield injuries or death. On returning home she has difficulty adjusting to civilian life. She misses her circle of friends, cannot easily find a job, and spends weeks sleeping poorly, eating little, having no appetite, and barely able to leave her home. She finds that activities that used to give her pleasure are no longer satisfying. Which of the following best fits her symptoms?

A) Post-traumatic stress disorder
B) Depression
C) Schizophrenia
D) Conversion disorder
E) Ambivalence

Question 44

Arlo's friends notice that around the time of his graduation from high school, he began behaving strangely. He started using psychoactive drugs regularly, and began to act and speak strangely. He said he was being followed by CIA agents, some of whom were likely from other planets. "They try to hide their identities from me," he said one day, "but I can recognize them. They are the ones driving dark blue cars. I see them everywhere." He says he can hear them thinking, and they are saying nasty and threatening things about them. While you are talking he interrupts to say he can read your mind. Arlo is most likely to have which of the following conditions?

A) Schizophrenia
B) Dementia
C) Tourette's syndrome
D) Narcissistic personality disorder
E) Separation anxiety

Question 45

Lola survives a devastating plane crash, during which her mother dies. Since the crash she has night terrors, and every time she hears a car back fire or a firecracker explode, she appears first startled and then withdrawn. Which of the following terms describes her symptoms?

A) Schizophrenia
B) Borderline personality disorder
C) Post-traumatic stress disorder
D) Separation anxiety
E) Munchausen's syndrome

Question 46

Sexual assault or violence may include which of the following activities when they are unwanted or declined by a partner:

A) Body penetration by the male penis.
B) Body penetration by a finger
C) Body penetration by a non-living object
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Question 47

James reports that he can no longer move his right hand and leg. The right side of his body also feels numb. His symptoms started suddenly. James describes his symptoms calmly, and appears unconcerned by them. A thorough evaluation in the Emergency Room, including a nursing assessment, medical examination, brain and spinal cord MRI, lab tests, and a neurological consultation reveal no diagnosis, and many inconsistencies. Which of the following is TRUE:

A) James may have Munchausen syndrome
B) James may have a Conversion disorder
C) Both of the above
D) Neither of the above

Question 48

Which of the following are consistent with a tonic/clonic seizure?

A) The patient can answer questions during the seizure
B) The patient appears to be emotionally detached, but oriented during the seizure
C) The patient is unconscious and his arms and legs jerk violently during the seizure.
D) The patient appears to be hearing voices that no one else can hear during the seizure.

Question 49

Diana is a risk taker. She typically drives over the speed limit, drinks alcohol heavily, often placing herself at risk of injury. She has had many accidents, several suicide attempts, multiple ER visits, and appears to her acquaintances to have unusually labile emotions. Which of the following nursing terms matches Diana's behaviors best?

A) Avoidant personality disorder
B) Borderline personality disorder
C) Antisocial personality disorder
D) Detachment
E) Anxiety

Question 50

The ability to interact with people of different ages, backgrounds, socioeconomic classes, and races can best be described as:

A) Culpability
B) Cultural competence
C) Social networking
D) Sociopathy
E) Social distancing

Question 51

One of the major goals of Infection Control nursing is the PREVENTION of:

A) Asepsis
B) Nosocomial infection
C) Hand washing
D) Inherited disease
E) Age discrimination

Question 52

Vaccines contribute to all of the following EXCEPT:

A) The development of herd immunity
B) The prevention of Infectious diseases
C) Autism in children
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Question 53

Infection control precautions used specifically to control the spread of Norovirus and Clostridioides difficile infections are called:

A) Droplet precautions
B) Airborne precautions
C) Enteric precautions
D) Standard precautions
E) Contact precautions

Question 54

How often should stethoscopes be cleaned to prevent the spread of infection in the ICU?

A) At the beginning and the end of each shift
B) Weekly
C) Daily
D) PRN
E) After each patient contact

Question 55

An oncogenic virus is a virus that can contribute to the development of cancer. Which of the following is an oncogenic virus associated with cancer of the liver (also known as hepatocellular carcinoma).

A) Coronavirus
B) Hantavirus
C) Hepatitis C virus
D) Variola virus
E) Herpes-Zoster virus

Question 56

Which of the following is an aerosol-generating procedure that requires airborne precautions?

A) Phlebotomy
B) Tracheal intubation
C) Urinary bladder catheterization
D) Joint injection
E) Paracentesis

Question 57

Which of the following practices are used to ensure the sterility of invasive procedures?

A) The use of antimicrobial agents on the skin
B) The use of drapes
C) Donning gowns and gloves and other personal protective equipment
D) Sterilization of instruments
E) All of the Above
F) None of the Above

Question 58

Which of the following is not a standard practice used in hand washing in health care settings?

A) Using soap
B) Washing the arms up to the elbows
C) Washing the wrists
D) Washing between fingers and under fingernails
E) Drying the hands after washing

Question 59

Examples of personal protective devices (PPD) used in health care settings include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) Shoe covers
B) Masks
C) Face shields
D) Ear plugs
E) Gowns

Question 60

When people cough or sneeze, they may release which of the following into the environment?

A) Droplets of saliva and / or mucus
B) Airborne bacteria, fungi or viruses
C) Both of the Above
D) Neither of the Above

Question 61

Tuberculosis is a disease that is most often spread by:

A) Manual contact between an infected person and an uninfected person
B) Sexual intercourse
C) Faulty sewage systems
D) Airborne particles
E) Contact with blood and body fluids

Question 62

To make a health care environment aseptic, which of the following should be cleaned and disinfected?

A) Stethoscopes
B) Countertops
C) Bedrails
D) Linens
E) All of the Above
F) None of the Above

Question 63

Gowns should be discarded:

A) At the end of each shift
B) Daily
C) Weekly
D) After each patient contact
E) When they are visibly soiled

Question 64

A Power of Attorney for Health Care specifies:

A) How a person wants to have his assets distributed after he dies
B) The name of the beneficiary of a person's insurance policies
C) How to apply rules of confidentiality when talking with patient's families
D) Who may make decisions on behalf of a patient who can no longer make choices on his own.

Question 65

A Do Not Resuscitate Order advises health care providers:

A) What emergency services may be used or withheld when a person is dying.
B) Whether a person would want to have artificial feeding ("tube" feeding).
C) What pastoral services a patient might want after dying
D) Whether to use laboratory or radiological services in a terminally ill patient.
E) All of the Above

Question 66

When a health care client receives a clear, concise and detailed description of a medical procedure that answers all her questions, and decides to have the procedure done, that client is said to have been given:

A) Durable Power of Healthcare
B) A Do Not Resuscitate order
C) Informed Consent
D) Health care Advocacy

Question 67

The process of grouping clients by the severity of their illnesses or injuries, and then making decisions about who will be treated first is known formally as:

A) Advocacy
B) Informed Consent
C) Triage
D) Social distancing
E) Reverse isolation

Question 68

Dr. Edwards says he finds many Ayurvedic treatments to help his patients. Where did Ayurvedic medicine arise?

A) On the subcontinent of India
B) In France
C) At Harvard University
D) In South America
E) In the Arctic

Question 69

Allopathic medicine, that is, the type of medicine practiced primarily in Europe, Japan and North America is also known as:

A) Nutritional science
B) Quackery
C) Biomedicine
D) Oncology
E) Radiotherapy

Question 70

A report about your patient, Therese, says she is "community-dwelling." This means she is:

A) Homeless
B) A resident of a skilled nursing facility
C) Homebound
D) Living on her own
E) Completely dependent on others

Question 71

The protection of electronic devices from disruption, intrusion, loss or data, or re-programming is known as:

A) Cybersecurity
B) Desktop medicine
C) An access code
D) Computer-aided diagnosis
E) High-performance computing

Question 72

Excessive use of, or dependence on the Internet, computers, smart phones, social media and video games, when this use interferes with other functional activities of daily living is an example of a(n) _________ disorder.

A) Borderline personality disorder
B) Avoidant personality disorder
C) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D) Antisocial personality disorder
E) Schizophrenia

Question 73

Advantages of team-based care include:

A) The opportunity it provides for discussion about a client from multiple interested parties.
B) The relief it provides from safeguarding patient confidentiality.
C) The emphasis it has on paternalistic models of care.
D) All of the Above
E) None of the Above

Question 74

Which of the following best matches the meaning of the terms "Day 0 and Ro?"

A) Day 0 is the date of birth of an infant; Ro is the date an infant is released home from a newborn nursery
B) Day 0 is the first day a client is recognized to have a serious illness; Ro is the date the client required resuscitation
C) Day 0 is the first day that a client is exposed to an infectious agent; Ro is the relative infectivity of the agent
D) Day 0 is the first day chemotherapy is given to a patient; Ro is the day that disease remission is achieved.

Question 75

A generic drug:

A) Is inferior to a brand name drug.
B) Is usually more expensive than a brand name drug.
C) Is a better drug to use than a brand name drug, if it is equivalently effective and much less expensive.
D) Is a drug used in gene therapy.
E) Is a drug that has a broad spectrum of action, rather than a focused or narrow spectrum

Question 76

Another term for a conversion disorder is:

A) Functional neurological disorder
B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C) Addiction
D) Sexual identity disorder
E) Learning disorder

Question 77

Insulins are available in a variety of formulations and concentrations. Concentrated insulins:

A) Have more units of drug per mL of fluid than non-concentrated insulins
B) Are more potent than non-concentrated insulins
C) May be used by people who require very high doses of insulin to achieve diabetic control
D) All of the above
E) None of the above.

Question 78

In discussing a client from another country, Pat says that everyone from that country is lazy and shiftless. His use of these terms is an example of:

A) Allocation bias
B) Automation bias
C) Indication bias
D) Stigmatizing language
E) Casual conversation

Question 79

After her stroke, Melania appeared to understand what others were saying (she could follow commands) but she was unable to speak. Inability to put thoughts into words is known as:

A) Poverty of thought
B) Expressive aphasia
C) Receptive aphasia
D) Dementia
E) Ataxia

Question 80

Dagmar hates to leave home because each time she goes to the supermarket or the post office to carry out the simplest activities, she feels her heart race, becomes short of breath, begins to sweat and feels faint. Her symptoms of panic are a reflection of:

A) Angina pectoris
B) Paranoid delusions
C) Receptive aphasia
D) Mania
E) Agoraphobia