Deck 3: Infancy

Question 1

About one in five new mothers suffers from postpartum depression.

Answer 1

True

Question 2

The Apgar scale measures appearance, pulse, activity level, respiratory effort, and hearing.

Answer 2

False

Question 3

In 1890, William James, a founder of modern psychology, accurately characterized a neonate's perception of the world "as one great blooming, buzzing confusion."

Answer 3

False

Question 4

Neonates are able to learn through classical conditioning.

Question 5

Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the second leading cause of death for infants.

Question 6

The most dramatic gains in height and weight occur during prenatal development.

Question 7

Infants of the Hopi tribe are routinely strapped to cradleboards until one year of age, which greatly retards their motor development because this deprives their brain of appropriate motor input.

Question 8

Infants can perceive differences between highly similar speech sounds by the age of one month, as evidenced by sensitization to the sounds "marana" and "marala."

Question 9

According to Piaget's A-not-B theory, a child who repeatedly retrieves a toy from the closet and then watches his mother place the toy in a bag will still look for the toy in the closet.

Question 10

Neonates only hours old have been found to imitate adults who open their mouths or stick out their tongues.

Question 11

Crying is a primitive form of language.

Question 12

In general, children's expressive vocabulary outpaces their receptive vocabulary in development.

Question 13

Children with an expressive style of speech use more pronouns and many words involved in social routines, such as stop, more, and all gone.

Question 14

Jolene sends a text to her mother: "Be home dinnertime." This type of language usage illustrates telegraphic speech.

Question 15

People with Broca's aphasia speak freely and with proper syntax but have trouble understanding speech and finding the words to express themselves.

Question 16

Destiny drops off her eighteen-month-old daughter Ivy at daycare. When Destiny leaves, Ivy is not upset and plays by herself in a corner. Upon return, Ivy is ambivalent to her mother's reappearance. According to Mary Ainsworth, Ivy is displaying the classical signs of secure attachment.

Question 17

Ana is the mother of an autistic girl, Zoyla. Every morning, Ana leaves out an orange and a bowl of cereal for Zoyla. One morning, when Ana forgets to set out an orange, Zoyla screams in a state of panic. Zoyla is demonstrating preservation of sameness.

Question 18

Emotional regulation refers to the ways in which children look to their parents for reassurance in new situations.

Question 19

The term "goodness of fit" describes how well a child's perceived reality matches with the actual world.

Question 20

Margaret Mahler, a psychoanalyst, proposed that development of the self-concept comes about through a process of separation-individuation.

Question 21

According to the American Psychiatric Association, what do approximately 70% of new mothers experience during the postpartum period?

A) "baby blues"
B) "nesting instinct"
C) "mommy memory loss"
D) "nurture conflict"

Question 22

Three weeks after delivering a healthy baby boy, Miriam's husband notices that she isn't sleeping at night, even when the baby is sleeping; she also becomes easily agitated and appears to be speaking with someone even when no one else is in the room with her. Miriam is likely suffering from postpartum ____.

A) depression
B) psychosis
C) mania
D) hyperinsomnia

Question 23

Andrea returns home two days after giving birth to a healthy baby boy. On her first night home, she cannot sleep when the baby is sleeping, she feels very irritable, she cannot concentrate on the magazine article she is trying to read, and she worries incessantly that the baby has stopped breathing. She may be suffering from postpartum ____.

A) depression
B) psychosis
C) mania
D) hyperinsomnia

Question 24

According to researchers, what is a key trigger of postpartum mood disorders?

A) societal pressures
B) traumatic birthing experience
C) hormonal changes
D) lack of family support

Question 25

What was a critique of Klaus and Kennell's (1970s) study on mother-infant bonding?

A) Mothers could request which group they wished to participate in (extended versus limited contact), biasing the samples.
B) Coerced and extended separation from their babies caused many mothers to suffer significant emotional distress.
C) Mothers with extended contact were also more likely to breast feed their babies, but the benefits of breast milk were unaccounted for.
D) The benefits of extended contact were not separated from the benefits of additional hospital staff support.

Question 26

How are the findings of Klaus and Kennell's (1970s) mother-infant bonding study viewed today?

A) Contemporary views are in agreement; for bonding to be successful it must happen frequently and early on.
B) Contemporary views are in agreement; bonding can be successful even if it happens later in infancy
C) Contemporary views are in disagreement; for bonding to be successful it must happen frequently and early on
D) Contemporary views are in disagreement; bonding can be successful even if it happens later in infancy

Question 27

Which scale measures a newborn's health by assessing appearance, pulse, grimace, activity level, and respiratory effort?

A) Basso, Beattie, and Bresnahan scale
B) Apgar scale
C) Glasgow Neonate scale
D) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale

Question 28

Which scale measures a newborn's motor behavior, response to stress, adaptive behavior, and control over physiological state?

A) Basso, Beattie, and Bresnahan scale
B) Apgar scale
C) Glasgow Neonate scale
D) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale

Question 29

Shortly after giving birth to a baby girl, Nala overhears the pediatrician comment that the newborn has an Apgar score of 2. What does this indicate?

A) The baby has received a perfect Apgar score and is in good health.
B) Although not a perfect Apgar score, the baby's health indicators are within normal range.
C) The baby is experiencing moderate health problems and should be closely monitored.
D) The baby's is in critical condition and immediate medical attention is required.

Question 30

An unlearned, stereotypical response to a stimulus is referred to as ____.

A) habit
B) instinct
C) reflex
D) response

Question 31

Deirdra strokes the cheek of her newborn daughter with her fingers; the baby responds with a normal rooting reflex by ____.

A) bending her neck forward
B) arching her neck back
C) turning her head away from her mother's fingers
D) turning her head towards her mother's fingers

Question 32

Which is an accurate statement regarding neonatal reflexes?

A) Reflexes are the simplest motor activities displayed by neonates.
B) Reflexes are the most complicated motor activities displayed by neonates.
C) Most neonatal reflexes are exhibited one to two months after birth.
D) Most neonatal reflexes disappear shortly after the baby's first birthday.

Question 33

Tina repositions her newborn son so that she can change his diaper. He suddenly arches his back and flings his arms and legs out before bringing them back towards his chest. Which reflex is Tina's son displaying?

A) Moro reflex
B) Babinski reflex
C) Apgar reflex
D) Sears reflex

Question 34

Carl strokes the underside of his newborn daughter's foot. She responds by fanning out her toes. Which reflex is Carl's daughter displaying?

A) Moro reflex
B) Babinski reflex
C) Apgar reflex
D) Sears reflex

Question 35

Dr. Tobias tests the stepping reflex of newborn baby Petra and observes that Petra remains on her tip-toes. What does this indicate?

A) Petra is likely a full-term baby.
B) Petra is likely a pre-term baby.
C) Petra is at least five months old.
D) Petra is not older than one month.

Question 36

Newborn baby Sasha does not display the grasping reflex. What may this indicate about Sasha's birth?

A) Sasha was likely born via cesarean section.
B) Anesthetics were likely given to Sasha's mother during childbirth.
C) Sasha likely had a nuchal cord (cord wrapped around her neck).
D) Sasha likely had difficulty breathing immediately after birth.

Question 37

Which neonatal reflex is characterized by turning the head to one side, extending the arm and leg on that side, and flexing the limbs on the opposite side?

A) cervical-lumbar reflex
B) patellar reflex
C) palmer reflex
D) tonic-neck reflex

Question 38

What is true of the neonate's vision?

A) Neonates are farsighted.
B) Neonates prefer stationary objects over moving objects.
C) Neonates show little visual accommodation.
D) Neonatal convergence occurs about two weeks after birth.

Question 39

To show her newborn baby brother her new toy bunny, Candace dangles the toy above his face. At what distance from her brother's face would Candace have to hold the toy bunny for her brother to clearly focus on the toy?

A) 2-3 inches
B) 3-5 inches
C) 5-7 inches
D) 7-9 inches

Question 40

What is the typical visual response of newborn babies when placed in complete darkness?

A) They close their eyes tightly.
B) Their frequency of blinking increases.
C) They open their eyes wide and search around.
D) They roll their eyes upward.

Question 41

What is true of neonatal hearing?

A) Neonates tend to prefer the voices of their mothers and fathers compared with other adult voices.
B) Neonates show preferences for languages spoken by their parents.
C) Neonates are more likely to respond to low-pitch sounds.
D) Neonates are particularly responsive to the sounds and rhythms of speech.

Question 42

Which study supports the idea that smell is a vehicle for mother-infant recognition and attachment?

A) When breast-feeding mothers significantly changed their diets, their babies no longer preferred the smell of their nursing pads.
B) Breast-fed babies - but not bottle-fed babies - prefer the odor of their mothers' underarms.
C) Before even tasting the bottle, breast-fed babies refused the milk of another mother but accepted formula.
D) Fathers who wore the t-shirts of breast-feeding mothers - but not bottle-feeding mothers - reported less crying when caring for their newborns.

Question 43

How do sweet solutions typically affect neonates?

A) They produce a calming effect.
B) They decrease heart rate.
C) They increase the rate of sucking.
D) They cause intestinal distention.

Question 44

Which study showed that classical conditioning is possible in neonates?

A) Neonates were taught to wave their arm in response to a tone.
B) Neonates were taught to grasp in response to smell.
C) Neonates were taught to blink in response to a tone.
D) Neonates were taught to smile in response to smell.

Question 45

What is an example of classical conditioning in an infant?

A) An infant is picked up in response to crying.
B) An infant learns to swallow solid food with practice.
C) An infant voluntarily grasps her mother's finger.
D) An infant smiles at her mother's - but not a stranger's - face.

Question 46

In a study where neonates modified their sucking behavior through the reinforcement of hearing their mothers read a familiar story, the researchers were illustrating which type of learning paradigm?

A) classical conditioning
B) operant conditioning
C) imprinting
D) sensitization

Question 47

Sonya decides to teach her eight-month-old son Max to wave his hands when he is hungry by giving him his favorite cracker every time he randomly waves his hands. One morning, Sonya catches Max waving his hands, so she searches through the pantry to find his crackers. Is Max likely to learn through Sonya's technique?

A) No; babies typically do not learn from operant conditioning until they are at least one year old.
B) Yes; Sonya has chosen Max's favorite snack so he is likely to repeat the behavior.
C) No; for the reinforcer to work in an eight-month-old baby, it must be given within two seconds of the behavior.
D) Yes; Sonya has chosen an easy action for an eight-month-old, hand waving, and an effective motivator, hunger.

Question 48

Per 24-hour period, how much does a typical neonate sleep?

A) 12 hours
B) 14 hours
C) 16 hours
D) 18 hours

Question 49

In a 24-hour period, what is a typical sleep-wake cycle for a one-week-old infant?

A) Two cycles of waking and sleeping; longest nap about 8 hours; wakefulness for about 2 hours per cycle.
B) Four cycles of waking and sleeping; longest nap about 2 hours; wakefulness for about 3 hours per cycle.
C) Six cycles of waking and sleeping; longest nap about 4 hours; wakefulness for about 1 hour during each cycle.
D) Eight cycles of waking and sleeping; longest nap about 3 hours; wakefulness for about 4 hours during each cycle.

Question 50

What may be a function of REM sleep in neonates?

A) During wakefulness, infants experience sensory overload and REM sleep allows them to attune to information missed during the day.
B) REM sleep is thought to prevent SIDS in neonates by stimulating the areas of the brain that control breathing.
C) During the neonatal period, dreams that occur during REM sleep likely contribute to the earliest phases of enculturation.
D) REM sleep causes brain stimulation, which is necessary to drive sufficient protein synthesis for neuronal development and synapse formation.

Question 51

According to studies, what is the main reason that neonates cry?

A) pain
B) hunger
C) fatigue
D) over stimulation

Question 52

Tiana's newborn daughter Angelica is going through sudden and loud bouts of crying that can last for hours and are accompanied by leg flexing and kicking. Angelica is likely ____.

A) teething
B) experiencing colic
C) hungry
D) cold

Question 53

The more frequently mothers ignore their infants' crying bouts in the first 9 weeks, the less frequently their infants cry in the following 9-week period. Experts recommend ____.

A) only responding to the urgent cries of neonates
B) picking up but not nursing the infant
C) ignoring a neonates cry to prevent unhealthy attachments
D) addressing the cries because they signify pain or hunger

Question 54

Early on, how do most parents determine what actions to take to soothe their infants?

A) body language of baby
B) focus on medical necessities
C) trial and error of different techniques
D) verbal cues of the baby

Question 55

What is the evidence that the soothing function of sucking need not be learned through experience?

A) Babies mimic the sucking motion when at rest or during sleep.
B) As a baby outgrows colic, their rooting reflex also strengthens.
C) Babies who cry incessantly or become easily agitated typically show a weak rooting reflex at birth.
D) Sucking on a pacifier decreases crying and agitated movement in hungry neonates.

Question 56

A major concern of many parents is that if they quickly pick up a crying baby, ____.

A) the baby's volunteer behavior will become instinct
B) the baby will inevitably suffer greater discomfort
C) they are reinforcing the baby for crying
D) they are interfering with a natural course of events

Question 57

Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is also referred to as ____.

A) crib death
B) blue baby syndrome
C) infantile anoxic termination
D) neonatal unintentional asphyxiation

Question 58

SIDS is more common among which groups?

A) infants born to mothers with gestational diabetes
B) infants with Down's syndrome
C) low-birth-weight infants
D) infants with cerebral palsy

Question 59

Infancy is the period of very early childhood, before two years of age, and characterized by a lack of ____.

A) complex speech
B) complex thought processes
C) fine motor control
D) gross motor control

Question 60

According to a study conducted by the Children's Hospital Boston, SIDS may be caused by ____.

A) high responsiveness of the cerebral cortex to glutamate
B) high responsiveness of the basal ganglia to dopamine
C) low responsiveness of the amygdala to acetylcholine
D) low responsiveness of the medulla to serotonin

Question 61

To prevent SIDS, the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends ____.

A) keeping the baby's room warm
B) using a pacifier at sleep time
C) placing infants on their side during sleep
D) using home monitoring devices for detecting sleep patterns

Question 62

The three key sequences of physical development are cephalocaudal development, proximodistal development, and ____.

A) transformation
B) elongation
C) specification
D) differentiation

Question 63

Cephalocaudal development proceeds ____.

A) from the lower parts of the body to the head
B) from the outward structures of the body inward
C) from the upper part of the head to the lower parts of the body
D) from the inner part (or axis) of the body outward

Question 64

Proximodistal development proceeds ____.

A) from the lower parts of the body to the head
B) from the outward structures of the body inward
C) from the upper part of the head to the lower parts of the body
D) from the inner part (or axis) of the body outward

Question 65

By what factors do the head, torso, arms and legs lengthen between birth and maturity?

A) head: 2x; torso: 3x, arms: 4x; legs: 5x
B) head: 3x; torso: 2x, arms: 5x; legs: 4x
C) head: 4x; torso: 3x, arms: 2x; legs: 5x
D) head: 2x; torso: 4x, arms: 3x; legs: 5x

Question 66

Why does the head develop more rapidly than the rest of the body during the embryonic stage?

A) The head is required to provide structural support to the rest of the body.
B) The brain is essential for the development of the rest of the body.
C) Growth hormones are first secreted from the limb buds towards the head.
D) During embryogenesis, the torso and limb buds fold out from under the head.

Question 67

Why does the spinal cord develop before the limbs?

A) The muscle fibers of the arms and the legs directly attach to the spinal cord.
B) Hormones are secreted along the spinal cord to regulate arm and leg development.
C) The nerves must be in place before infants can gain control over their arms and legs.
D) The spinal cord provides structural support for the rest of the body.

Question 68

Brothers, James age 4 and Tim age 1, are playing in the kitchen. Unfortunately, the oven was left on and each boy accidentally touches the hot oven door. James withdrawals his finger, shouts and cries; Tim withdrawals his finger, wails, and thrashes about on the floor. The different reactions of the two boys demonstrates the process of ____.

A) differentiation
B) maturity
C) discrimination
D) motor regulation

Question 69

At birth, full-term baby Shiloh is 18 inches in length. If Shiloh follows a typical growth pattern, on her first birthday, she will be how many inches tall?

A) 24 inches
B) 27 inches
C) 30 inches
D) 33 inches

Question 70

At birth, full-term baby Claire weighs 7 lbs. If Claire follows a typical growth pattern, on her first birthday, she will weigh ____.

A) 14 lbs
B) 21 lbs
C) 28 lbs
D) 35 lbs

Question 71

According to researchers, what is the typical pattern of growth for infants?

A) Gradual and slow growth occurs on a daily basis.
B) Long periods of no growth are followed by gradual growth spurts occurring over the course of a week.
C) Periods of quick growth (within 24 hours) alternate with periods of gradual growth (within one week).
D) Long periods of no growth are separated by short period (within 24 hours) of rapid growth.

Question 72

Raul is a healthy infant who is on schedule with his growth milestones. Compared with his body proportion on his first birthday, what will Raul's body proportion be like on his second birthday?

A) His arms will be longer than his legs; his head will increase in proportion to the rest of the body.
B) His arms will be shorter than his legs; his head will increase in proportion to the rest of the body.
C) His arms will be longer than his legs; his head will decrease in proportion to the rest of the body.
D) His arms will be shorter than his legs; his head will decrease in proportion to the rest of the body.

Question 73

What is at the root of failure to thrive (FTT) disorder?

A) genetic predisposition
B) exposure to environmental toxins
C) prenatal teratogen exposure
D) feeding problems

Question 74

Tara, who is in third grade, was diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT) as an infant. Therefore, it is not surprising that Tara currently ____.

A) has asthma
B) is having difficulties in school
C) is a picky eater
D) needs glasses

Question 75

As an infant, Naimh was diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT). Her parents worked very hard with their pediatrician to address Naimh's FTT disorder. Now in first grade, Naimh has almost caught up in height with her peers; this illustrates which process?

A) growth acceleration
B) exponential correction
C) compensation
D) canalization

Question 76

What is a common problem associated with poor infant nutrition?

A) anemia
B) hypothyroidism
C) heart murmur
D) tachycardia

Question 77

Solid foods should be introduced to a baby around ____.

A) 2-4 months of age
B) 4-6 months of age
C) 6-8 months of age
D) 8-10 months of age

Question 78

Tanya's infant daughter is ready to begin solid foods. As her pediatrician, what advice would you give her?

A) Include a variety of high-fiber foods.
B) Restrict fat and cholesterol intake.
C) Encourage the consumption of high-iron foods.
D) Introduce several types of food at once.

Question 79

Ciara, who is in the final trimester of her pregnancy, is contemplating breast-feeding her soon-to-be born baby. As her obstetrician, what information can you give Ciara to help her make an informed decision?

A) Breast milk helps protect against the form of childhood cancer known as medulloblastomas.
B) Breast milk contains the mother's antibodies.
C) After three months of age, breast milk alone is not a sufficient source of nutrients.
D) Maternal infections or environmental toxins cannot be passed through breast milk.

Question 80

A rootlike part of a neuron that receives impulses from other neurons is referred to as a(n) ____.

A) axon
B) dendrite
C) cilia
D) flagella