Deck 6: Selection

Question 1

What is a software application designed to help an enterprise select employees more efficiently?

A) applicant tracking system
B) selection tracking process
C) cognitive aptitude test
D) job selection system

Answer 1

A
Explanation: A) An applicant tracking system (ATS) is a software application designed to help an enterprise select employees more efficiently. Current ATSs permit human resource and line managers to oversee the entire selection process. They often involve screening résumés and spotting qualified candidates, conducting personality and skills tests, and handling background checks.

Question 2

VRA Technologies needs to hire a data entry specialist. As an HR manager at the firm, which of the following is your most important task when filling this position?

A) conducting multiple background checks
B) requiring a word processing test
C) checking medical histories
D) calling personal references

Answer 2

B
Explanation: B) Organizations usually take different approaches to filling positions at varying levels. When filling a clerical position, HR would most likely focus on candidates taking word-processing tests. Background checks and personal references are important, but less critical than assessing a candidate's typing skills. Checking medical histories would be illegal.

Question 3

Carlos, an HR manager, has reviewed the applications and résumés of five candidates for a data analyst position at his firm. Which of the following is the most likely next step that Carlos will take in the selection process?

A) interviewing applicants for prescreening
B) having applicants take physical exams
C) checking applicants' references
D) giving applicants selection tests

Answer 3

D
Explanation: D) The selection process varies by organization, but it typically begins with preliminary screening. Next, applicants complete the firm's application for employment or provide a résumé. Then they progress through a series of selection tests, one or more employment interviews, and pre-employment screening, including background and reference checks.

Question 4

Which of the following is the primary factor that determines the success or failure of a company?

A) visionary business strategy
B) high-tech control systems
C) sound organizational structure
D) competent employees

Question 5

What is the primary criticism against a national identification system based on biometric data?

A) EEOC laws
B) political risks
C) immigration influxes
D) privacy and security risks

Question 6

The primary purpose of the preliminary interview is ________.

A) gathering a detailed work history from applicants
B) measuring the likelihood of an applicant's success
C) eliminating unqualified applicants
D) determining applicant interest

Question 7

What refers to management's perception of the degree to which the prospective employee will fit in with the firm's culture or value system?

A) occupational fit
B) personality fit
C) co-worker fit
D) organizational fit

Question 8

Members of Congress who claim that E-Verify fails to prevent employers from hiring illegal immigrants advocate replacing the system with one based on ________.

A) nanotechnology
B) fingerprinting
C) graphology
D) biometrics

Question 9

If the selection ratio is 1.00, how many qualified applicants are there for one open position at a firm?

A) 0
B) 1
C) 10
D) 100

Question 10

Applicant tracking systems are being redesigned to include ________.

A) automated résumé ranking tools
B) background check capabilities
C) customized input forms
D) quality-of-hire metrics

Question 11

What is the length of the typical probationary period?

A) 30 to 60 days
B) 60 to 90 days
C) 90 to 180 days
D) one year

Question 12

Which of the following can serve as a substitute for certain selection tools and as a method of determining an employee's suitability?

A) probationary period
B) stress interview
C) reference check
D) selection ratio

Question 13

The selection ratio is the number of people hired for a particular job compared to the number of qualified individuals in the ________.

A) workforce
B) population
C) applicant pool
D) labor market

Question 14

The HR manager at a manufacturing plant is required to use E-Verify to check the information provided on each employee's ________.

A) I-9
B) W-2
C) W-4
D) 1099

Question 15

The selection process typically begins with the ________.

A) application review
B) employment interview
C) background check
D) preliminary interview

Question 16

Marshall Consulting needs to hire a new CEO in the next two months. As an HR manager at Marshall Consulting, which of the following is your most important task when filling this position?

A) conducting extensive background checks
B) devising new selection tests
C) creating application forms
D) gathering biometric data

Question 17

Applicant tracking systems are primarily used for ________.

A) generating legally appropriate interview questions
B) sorting résumés from online job boards
C) measuring the quality of applicants
D) tracking HR manager requisitions

Question 18

Which term refers to the number of qualified applicants recruited for a particular job?

A) job pool
B) labor market
C) applicant pool
D) applicant market

Question 19

Which term refers to the process of choosing from a group of qualified applicants the individual best suited for a particular position?

A) recruitment
B) selection
C) HR planning
D) job bidding

Question 20

Which of the following selection ratios indicates the highest number of qualified applicants for a position?

A) 10.0
B) 1.00
C) 0.10
D) 0.01

Question 21

Robert, a recent college graduate, is applying to accounting firms for an entry-level position. Since most large firms use applicant-tracking systems, which of the following words or phrases would be LEAST beneficial?

A) problem solving
B) PowerPoint 2010
C) organized
D) bilingual

Question 22

The extent to which a test measures what it claims to measure is known as ________.

A) reliability
B) subjectivity
C) validity
D) objectivity

Question 23

Experts suggest that a slight amount of test anxiety is ________.

A) abnormal
B) beneficial
C) detrimental
D) unprofessional

Question 24

When everyone scoring a test obtains the same results, the test is said to be ________.

A) reliable
B) objective
C) valid
D) consistent

Question 25

Tyra, an HR manager at an automotive parts facility, received 500 online applications for 30 job openings in the production department. To determine if an applicant is qualified, Tyra will most likely compare the information provided in each application to a ________.

A) job description
B) job-knowledge test
C) merit pay program
D) gainsharing assessment

Question 26

A student takes an IQ test one week and scores 140. The student retakes the test one week later and scores 90. Which of the following best describes the test?

A) unreliable
B) abnormal
C) subjective
D) objective

Question 27

Selection tests may accurately predict an applicant's ability to perform the job, but they are less successful in indicating the extent to which the individual has the necessary ________.

A) experience
B) education
C) motivation
D) qualifications

Question 28

A selection tool that provides consistent results is said to be ________.

A) valid
B) reliable
C) objective
D) standardized

Question 29

Validity is commonly reported as a ________.

A) standard deviation
B) standard error
C) selection procedure
D) correlation coefficient

Question 30

Which term refers to words or phrases that are used to search databases for résumés that match?

A) application match
B) job objective
C) résumé hit
D) keyword

Question 31

Which of the following relates most closely to test conditions?

A) objectivity
B) norms
C) standardization
D) reliability

Question 32

The uniformity of the procedures and conditions related to administering tests is referred to as ________.

A) objectivity
B) norms
C) standardization
D) reliability

Question 33

What type of résumé presents the job seeker's characteristics and experience in terms that accommodate the computer search process?

A) cyber résumé
B) hard hit résumé
C) electronic résumé
D) keyword résumé

Question 34

A goal-directed summary of a person's experience, education, and training developed for use in the selection process is known as a(n) ________.

A) résumé
B) application form
C) job requisition
D) work sample test

Question 35

Which of the following would LEAST likely appear as a preprinted statement on most job application forms?

A) statement that the applicant's former employers will not be contacted
B) statement that the applicant certifies everything on the form is True
C) statement that the company is an employment at will organization
D) statement that the applicant gives permission to have his or her references checked

Question 36

The purpose of ________ is to help a company manage potential and actual applicants in an organized manner.

A) applicant tracking
B) candidate relationship management
C) human capital metrics
D) work-sample validity

Question 37

The basic requirement for a selection test is that it be ________.

A) valid
B) reliable
C) objective
D) standardized

Question 38

Which of the following factors would most likely be rated in a selection test?

A) habits
B) family life
C) motivation
D) financial equity

Question 39

What provides a frame of reference for comparing an applicant's performance with the performance of similar individuals?

A) norms
B) keywords
C) objectivity
D) reliability

Question 40

Which of the following should NOT be requested on a job application form?

A) experience
B) education
C) birthplace
D) skills

Question 41

Persons who take polygraph tests have all of the following rights EXCEPT the ________.

A) right to refuse or discontinue a test
B) right to a written notice before testing
C) right to review results prior to distribution
D) right not to have test results disclosed to unauthorized persons

Question 42

Brian is seeking a sales position after scoring high on a test that compared his individual interests with those of successful sales managers. What type of test did Brian most likely take?

A) cognitive aptitude
B) vocational interest
C) job knowledge
D) work-sample

Question 43

A test validation method whereby a person performs certain tasks that are actually required by the job is referred to as ________.

A) concurrent validity
B) content validity
C) construct validity
D) predictive validity

Question 44

Kyla is applying for a job at a telecommunications company as a terminal operator, which primarily involves word processing tasks. Kyla has been asked to take a word processing test, so the firm is most likely using ________ in the selection process.

A) construct validity
B) content validity
C) concurrent validity
D) predictive validity

Question 45

During the selection process for a telemarketing position, Alex was given a test to measure his awareness of the job's duties. Which type of test did Alex most likely take?

A) psychomotor abilities
B) cognitive aptitude
C) job knowledge
D) work-sample

Question 46

The ________ is designed to prohibit the improper use of genetic information in health insurance and employment.

A) Freedom of Information Act
B) Federal Genealogy Act
C) Americans with Disabilities Act
D) Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act

Question 47

When criterion-related validity is used, the scores on the selection test are compared to ________.

A) scores on the pre-test
B) job performance factors
C) scores on the post-test
D) a national norm

Question 48

Which Act limited the use of polygraph tests in the private sector?

A) Lie Detector Protection Act of 2001
B) Federal Polygraph Protection Act of 1999
C) Polygraph Confirmation Act of 1990
D) Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988

Question 49

Kara took a test that indicated she has a predisposition for breast cancer. What type of test did Kara most likely take?

A) blood
B) genetic
C) urine
D) skin

Question 50

Which of the following is determined when a firm obtains test scores and criterion data at approximately the same time?

A) predictive validity
B) concurrent validity
C) construct validity
D) content validity

Question 51

As an HR manager, why would you most likely NOT use predictive validity to validate a selection test?

A) lack of technical soundness
B) stressful for job applicants
C) associated time and cost
D) poor motivation test

Question 52

When are employers required to validate their selection tests?

A) There is no such requirement.
B) All selection tests are validated automatically.
C) when an employment discrimination lawsuit has been filed
D) when the selection process results in an adverse impact on a protected group

Question 53

During the selection process for an IT position, Jeff was required to take a test that measured his memory and vocabulary. Which type of test did Jeff most likely take?

A) work-sample
B) psychomotor abilities
C) job knowledge
D) cognitive aptitude

Question 54

A test validation method that determines whether a test measures certain traits that job analysis finds to be important in performing a job is referred to as ________ validity.

A) construct
B) content
C) concurrent
D) predictive

Question 55

Kim is applying for a job as an accounts specialist, which will require extensive use of Excel. During the selection process, the employer provides Kim with data and asks her to compile an Excel spreadsheet with the information. Which type of test did Kim most likely take?

A) cognitive aptitude
B) psychomotor abilities
C) job knowledge
D) work-sample

Question 56

Craig is applying for a sales position at a commercial real estate firm. The HR manager gave Craig the Myers-Briggs test during the selection process. Which of the following is most likely being measured by the firm?

A) personality traits
B) cognitive abilities
C) vocational interest
D) psychomotor skills

Question 57

Comparing the scores on selection tests to some aspect of job performance is referred to as ________.

A) objective-related validity
B) standardized-related validity
C) normality-related validity
D) criterion-related validity

Question 58

Which of the following involves administering a test and later obtaining criterion information?

A) predictive validity
B) concurrent validity
C) construct validity
D) content validity

Question 59

Hannah is applying for a job as a technician at a manufacturing facility. The job requires employees to use magnifying lenses when assembling products, so Hannah's psychomotor abilities were tested. Which type of test did Hannah most likely take?

A) cognitive aptitude
B) psychomotor abilities
C) job knowledge
D) work-sample

Question 60

Which law protects healthy individuals who have a genetic predisposition for a disease?

A) Americans with Disabilities Act
B) Family and Medical Leave Act
C) Davis-Bacon Act
D) Equal Pay Act

Question 61

What selection technique requires individuals to perform activities similar to those they might encounter in an actual job?

A) psychomotor abilities test
B) assessment center
C) vocational interest test
D) job-related center

Question 62

Firms most likely use assessment centers during the selection process to ________.

A) compare applicants with current employees
B) predict the job performance of applicants
C) assess an applicant's job motivation
D) ensure applicants are healthy

Question 63

Several of the firm's representatives interviewing a candidate at the same time is typical of what type of interview?

A) group
B) board
C) stress
D) role-play

Question 64

Kelly is applying for a position with Citibank and will be participating in an assessment center. Which of the following activities is Kelly LEAST likely to do in the assessment center?

A) in-basket exercises
B) management games
C) psychomotor abilities tests
D) leaderless discussion groups

Question 65

The concept of ________ suggests that interviewers often make a judgment about a candidate during the first few minutes of the interview.

A) stereotyping bias
B) contrast bias
C) interview illusion bias
D) premature judgment bias

Question 66

Behavioral interviews are primarily intended to determine all of the following qualities about an applicant EXCEPT the applicant's ability to ________.

A) work under pressure
B) quantify task results
C) work with other people
D) resolve difficult problems

Question 67

A structured interview where applicants are asked to relate actual incidents from their past relevant to the target job is referred to as a ________.

A) stress interview
B) career related preview
C) behavioral interview
D) realistic interview

Question 68

What type of interview is comprehensive and involves the applicant talking more than the interviewer?

A) unstructured
B) structured
C) stress
D) directive

Question 69

What does the unstructured interview involve?

A) asking candidates probing, open-ended questions
B) using novice interviewers to assess candidates
C) validating candidate test scores against norms
D) asking identical questions to all candidates

Question 70

During a job interview, Sara is asked to describe a time when she was responsible for motivating others. Which of the following most likely describes this type of interview?

A) group interview
B) stress interview
C) board interview
D) behavioral interview

Question 71

Robert, an HR manager, is preparing to interview candidates for a software engineer position. Which of the following is LEAST likely to appear on Robert's interview planning checklist?

A) developing questions related to the qualities sought
B) prescreening additional applicants with behavioral selection tests
C) comparing an applicant's application and résumé with job requirements
D) preparing a step-by-step plan to present the position, company, division, and department

Question 72

Which of the following issues is LEAST relevant during an employment interview?

A) occupational experience
B) interpersonal skills
C) personal likes and dislikes
D) academic achievement

Question 73

What type of interview is most likely being conducted when an interviewer says, "I think your answer is totally inadequate: it doesn't deal with my concerns at all, can't you do better than that?"

A) stress
B) board
C) group
D) behavioral

Question 74

What is a goal-oriented conversation in which the interviewer and applicant exchange information called?

A) recruitment interview
B) training interview
C) development interview
D) employment interview

Question 75

What type of interview has potential legal problems because of the likelihood of discussing potentially discriminatory information?

A) structured
B) unstructured
C) stress
D) directive

Question 76

A(n) ________ occurs when an interviewer assumes that an applicant has certain traits because he or she is a member of a certain class.

A) contrast bias
B) stereotyping bias
C) premature judgment bias
D) interview illusion bias

Question 77

A structured interview usually contains all of the following questions EXCEPT ________.

A) situational questions
B) job knowledge questions
C) job sample simulation questions
D) family and medical history questions

Question 78

A ________ refers to a tendency of an interviewer to form a generalized positive impression of an applicant, and rate that person highly on all rating criteria even if the applicant really doesn't deserve a high rating for every one of them.

A) contrast bias
B) stereotyping bias
C) premature judgment bias
D) halo error bias

Question 79

What selection method continues to be the primary method companies use to evaluate applicants?

A) background checks
B) cognitive ability tests
C) employment interviews
D) assessment centers

Question 80

Several applicants interacting in the presence of one or more interviewers is typical of what type of interview?

A) stress
B) board
C) group
D) role-play