Deck 19: Basics of Procedural Coding

Question 1

Eustachian tube inflation, transnasal, with catheterization

A)69399
B)69401
C)69400
D)69405

Answer 1

69400

Question 2

Thoracentesis, puncture of pleural cavity for aspiration, initial or subsequent

A)32003
B)32002
C)32001
D)32000

Answer 2

32000

Question 3

A detailed history takes the shortest amount of time.

Answer 3

False

Question 4

Chest x-ray examination, single view, frontal

A)71000
B)71100
C)71010
D)71011

Question 5

Serum folic acid

A)82735
B)82760
C)82746
D)82803

Question 6

Biopsy of external ear

A)69090
B)69100
C)69140
D)69150

Question 7

Breast reduction

A)19316
B)19318
C)19328
D)19330

Question 8

It is acceptable to code from the Alphabetic Index.

Question 9

Appendixes A through L are found in the CPT-4 manual.

Question 10

Downcoding can increase reimbursements.

Question 11

Downcoding and upcoding are not illegal practices, and medical assistants cannot be prosecuted for either practice.

Question 12

Urinalysis

A)81000
B)81005
C)82000
D)81001

Question 13

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

A)93000
B)93015
C)92960
D)92950

Question 14

The CPT-4 is divided into eight sections.

Question 15

Revised codes are not highlighted in the CPT-4 manual.

Question 16

Anesthesia coding is based on a billing formula.

Question 17

The place of service never changes for physician billing.

Question 18

Pelvimetry, with or without placental localization

A)74710
B)74740
C)74742
D)74775

Question 19

Subcategories are the lowest level of code description and specificity.

Question 20

Suture of a recent wound on the eyelid

A)67938
B)67930
C)67950
D)67961

Question 21

Liver function study with hepatobiliary agents, with serial images

A)78201
B)78205
C)78220
D)78223

Question 22

Psychoanalysis

A)90845
B)90846
C)90847
D)90849

Question 23

New patient, initial inpatient consultation

A)99251
B)99252
C)99253
D)99254

Question 24

Triglycerides

A)84476
B)84477
C)84478
D)84479

Question 25

Febrile agglutinins, including Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A)86000
B)86001
C)86010
D)86011

Question 26

Initial pediatric inpatient critical care

A)99296
B)99295
C)99294
D)99293

Question 27

Initial hospital observation care, new patient

A)99217
B)99218
C)99219
D)99220

Question 28

Established patient office visit, problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making

A)99211
B)99212
C)99213
D)99214

Question 29

Cyanide

A)82595
B)82600
C)82615
D)82530

Question 30

Hospital discharge day management, 45 minutes

A)99238
B)99239
C)99234
D)99235

Question 31

Initial nursing facility care, detailed or comprehensive history or examination, straightforward or low-complexity decision making

A)99304
B)99305
C)99306
D)99307

Question 32

New patient office visit, problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making

A)99201
B)99202
C)99203
D)99204

Question 33

Basic metabolic panel

A)80048
B)80050
C)80051
D)80053

Question 34

New patient office visit, expanded problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making

A)99201
B)99202
C)99203
D)99204

Question 35

Established patient, home patient, problem-focused interval history and examination, straightforward medical decision making

A)99347
B)99348
C)99349
D)99350

Question 36

Total splenectomy

A)38115
B)38102
C)38101
D)38100

Question 37

New patient office visit, comprehensive history and examination, high-complexity decision making

A)99202
B)99203
C)99204
D)99205

Question 38

Acne surgery, removal of multiple milia, comedones, cysts, pustules

A)10080
B)10061
C)10040
D)11001

Question 39

Subsequent nursing facility care, comprehensive interval history and examination, high-complexity medical decisions

A)99310
B)99309
C)99308
D)99307

Question 40

New patient office visit, comprehensive history, examination, and moderate-complexity decision making

A)99201
B)99202
C)99203
D)99204

Question 41

__________ and management codes are used for physician's office visits.

Question 42

Codes that are grouped together and paid as one service or procedure are known as __________.

Question 43

A new or experimental procedure or service code is a category __________ code.

Question 44

A(n) __________ patient is one who is having his or her first encounter with the physician.

Question 45

The state of the patient as either new or established is called the patient __________.

Question 46

The __________ status is the condition of the patient.

Question 47

__________ codes are separated and reported individually.

Question 48

The dollar value of each basic unit value used in anesthesia coding is called the __________.

Question 49

Codes used mostly by hospitals that are not included in the CPT-4 are called __________ codes.

Question 50

A(n) __________ code indicates that additional or supplemental procedures carried out in addition to the primary procedure are needed.

Question 51

Special symbols used to provide additional information about certain codes are called __________; seven are used in CPT-4 coding.

Question 52

The __________ indicates that modifying terms and descriptions follow.

Question 53

A(n) __________ patient has seen the physician within the past 3 years.

Question 54

__________ are procedures or treatments named for a person.

Question 55

Some physicians must __________ patient care among several different providers.

Question 56

CPT-4 codes have __________ digits.

Question 57

An outline or summary of information contained in the medical documentation is called a(n) __________.