Deck 52: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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Deck 52: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
1
Ovulation testing measures the level of hCG in the bloodstream.
False
2
The Acetest is performed to detect an abnormal urinary pH level.
False
3
The most accurate method of testing urine in patients with diabetes requires a second-voided specimen.
True
4
The easiest directions for a patient in collecting a urine specimen are to ask the patient to fill the container three-quarters full to make sure enough urine is provided for testing.
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5
Ketones may not be present in a urine sample that is at room temperature.
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6
Crystals may be present in the urine because of antibiotic therapy.
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7
For the most accurate results, urine specimens should be kept refrigerated and processed within 2 hours of collection.
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8
In general, artifacts in urine sediment, such as mucous threads and starch granules, are quantified and reported.
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9
Collection of a midstream, clean-catch urine specimen is a nonsterile method for collecting a specimen for C&S.
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10
An EIA test result for pregnancy is positive if anti-hCG is present in the urine.
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11
The average person produces approximately 2 L of urine each day.
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12
The Clinitest is performed as a screening test for glycosuria.
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13
The cycle of urine production in the nephron unit is reabsorption, filtration, and excretion.
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14
A urinometer is most frequently used to determine the specific gravity of a urine specimen in the physician's office laboratory.
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15
Urine is the most commonly analyzed body fluid in the clinical laboratory.
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16
The presence of casts in urine sediment always indicates a pathologic condition.
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17
Normally the medical assistant documents the presence of foam on a urine specimen.
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18
Hematuria is the presence of intact red blood cells in urine.
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19
Reagent strip testing must be performed on a fresh specimen within 1 hour of collection.
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20
Of the many sugars that can be present in the urine, only glucose and galactose signify a pathologic condition.
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21
Although urine tests are used for drug screening, the most accurate examination is performed on blood samples.
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22
Crystal deposits are detected in urine after it has cooled.
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23
A cloudy urine specimen may be the result of which of the following?
A)Glycosuria
B)Ketones
C)Lipids
D)Amorphous crystals
A)Glycosuria
B)Ketones
C)Lipids
D)Amorphous crystals
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24
If a urine specimen cannot be analyzed within 30 minutes, the best course of action is to:
A)discard the specimen and order a recollection
B)refrigerate the specimen
C)add a chemical preservative
D)set the specimen aside
A)discard the specimen and order a recollection
B)refrigerate the specimen
C)add a chemical preservative
D)set the specimen aside
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25
One of the first detectable signs of renal disease is:
A)hematuria
B)pyuria
C)proteinuria
D)myoglobinuria
A)hematuria
B)pyuria
C)proteinuria
D)myoglobinuria
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26
The most accurate method for performing alcohol screening is analysis of a urine sample.
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27
On chemical analysis, a urine specimen from a female with a urinary tract infection most likely reveals _____ pH, _____ nitrite, and _____ leukocyte esterase.
A)decreased; increased; increased
B)increased; increased; increased
C)increased; decreased; decreased
D)increased; decreased; increased
A)decreased; increased; increased
B)increased; increased; increased
C)increased; decreased; decreased
D)increased; decreased; increased
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28
You open a urine sample for testing and immediately detect a fruity odor.Which test result do you expect to be elevated on chemical analysis?
A)Protein
B)Urobilinogen
C)Ketones
D)Bilirubin
A)Protein
B)Urobilinogen
C)Ketones
D)Bilirubin
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29
Safety precautions must be taken with the Clinitest method of testing for glycosuria because the chemical reaction causes the test tube to become very hot.
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30
Urine suspected of having high levels of which substance should be stored in a dark place before testing?
A)Bilirubin
B)Red blood cells
C)Bacteria
D)Protein
A)Bilirubin
B)Red blood cells
C)Bacteria
D)Protein
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31
A 24-hour urine sample is ordered to determine which of the following?
A)Ketone levels
B)Creatinine clearance rates
C)Proteinuria
D)Anuria
A)Ketone levels
B)Creatinine clearance rates
C)Proteinuria
D)Anuria
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32
Which statement is true about the pH of urine?
A)The average pH of freshly voided urine is 9.
B)The urinary pH varies with the diet.
C)The urine pH is alkaline if the patient has bacteriuria.
D)A urine pH below 7 indicates alkalinity.
A)The average pH of freshly voided urine is 9.
B)The urinary pH varies with the diet.
C)The urine pH is alkaline if the patient has bacteriuria.
D)A urine pH below 7 indicates alkalinity.
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33
Which of the following is mismatched concerning urine color and the likely pathologic cause?
A)Red: bleeding in the urinary tract
B)Greenish yellow: liver disorder
C)Blue-green: Pseudomonas infection
D)Reddish brown: diabetes
A)Red: bleeding in the urinary tract
B)Greenish yellow: liver disorder
C)Blue-green: Pseudomonas infection
D)Reddish brown: diabetes
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34
QC for the microscopic examination of urine relies on standardized commercial systems such as KOVA.
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35
When instructing a female patient in how to obtain a clean-catch, midstream urine specimen, you should tell her to use how many antiseptic towelettes?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
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36
The specific gravity of a urine specimen reads 1.035.This value is considered:
A)abnormally high
B)abnormally low
C)normal
D)none of the above
A)abnormally high
B)abnormally low
C)normal
D)none of the above
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37
Casts in a urine specimen develop in what part of the urinary tract?
A)Urethra
B)Renal tubules
C)Bladder
D)Ureters
A)Urethra
B)Renal tubules
C)Bladder
D)Ureters
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38
Quality control methods for microscopic examination of urine requires a minimum of 20 mL of urine that has been centrifuged for 10 minutes.
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39
A medical assistant instructs a patient to collect a first morning specimen for which of the following tests?
A)Pregnancy testing
B)Culture for bacteriuria
C)Quantitative protein determination
D)All of the above
A)Pregnancy testing
B)Culture for bacteriuria
C)Quantitative protein determination
D)All of the above
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40
When urine is fresh and warm, yeast organisms may be motile and appear to be darting about rapidly when the specimen is examined under a microscope.
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41
A urine sample that can be collected at any given time is called a:
A)random sample
B)2-hour PP
C)clean-catch sample
D)24-hour sample
A)random sample
B)2-hour PP
C)clean-catch sample
D)24-hour sample
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42
Which of the following is a tubular structure found in the urine and composed mainly of mucoprotein secreted by certain cells of the kidney?
A)Casts
B)Bacteria
C)Yeast
D)Metabolite
A)Casts
B)Bacteria
C)Yeast
D)Metabolite
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43
__________ casts are not uncommon in the urine of athletes.
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44
A urine pregnancy test result is positive:
A)only before implantation of the fertilized egg
B)from fertilization through the first trimester
C)from implantation of the fertilized egg through the first trimester
D)from implantation of the fertilized egg through delivery
A)only before implantation of the fertilized egg
B)from fertilization through the first trimester
C)from implantation of the fertilized egg through the first trimester
D)from implantation of the fertilized egg through delivery
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45
The sugar most commonly found in urine is __________.
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46
In the microscopic observation of urine sediment, yeast most resembles:
A)bacteria
B)red blood cells
C)mucous threads
D)calcium oxalate crystals
A)bacteria
B)red blood cells
C)mucous threads
D)calcium oxalate crystals
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47
A urine specimen is tested and shown to have a pH of 8.0.This value is:
A)abnormally low
B)abnormally high
C)midrange normal
D)normal
A)abnormally low
B)abnormally high
C)midrange normal
D)normal
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48
The most reliable test for detecting bladder cancer is __________, but it is an invasive procedure.
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49
A small amount of which of the following is always present in normal urine?
A)Bilirubin
B)Glucose
C)Urobilinogen
D)Leukocyte esterase
A)Bilirubin
B)Glucose
C)Urobilinogen
D)Leukocyte esterase
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50
The cell most likely seen in a normal specimen is a:
A)red blood cell
B)renal tubular epithelial cell
C)squamous epithelial cell
D)leukocyte
A)red blood cell
B)renal tubular epithelial cell
C)squamous epithelial cell
D)leukocyte
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51
You are examining a patient's urinalysis report.Which of the following factors is normal?
A)Specific gravity: 1.045
B)Color: light amber
C)Turbidity: present
D)Glucose: positive
A)Specific gravity: 1.045
B)Color: light amber
C)Turbidity: present
D)Glucose: positive
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52
One of the first detectable signs of liver disease is:
A)bilirubinuria
B)hematuria
C)proteinuria
D)ketonuria
A)bilirubinuria
B)hematuria
C)proteinuria
D)ketonuria
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53
A red blood cell seen in urine sediment that has scalloped, leaflike edges is described as __________.
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54
A random urine sample may contain blood from vaginal contamination if the woman is __________.
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55
A child whose urine has a mousy smell most likely would be diagnosed with:
A)diabetes
B)urinary tract infection
C)PKU
D)renal failure
A)diabetes
B)urinary tract infection
C)PKU
D)renal failure
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56
The pigment __________ is responsible for the color of urine.
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57
A turbid urine sample means that the specimen is:
A)contaminated
B)high in ketones
C)high in glucose
D)cloudy
A)contaminated
B)high in ketones
C)high in glucose
D)cloudy
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58
When a woman enters menopause, the ovaries stop producing eggs and the levels of __________ rise.
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59
Which of the following is not used to measure specific gravity?
A)Refractometer
B)Microscope
C)Reagent strip
D)Urinometer
A)Refractometer
B)Microscope
C)Reagent strip
D)Urinometer
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60
Standard practice in the clinical laboratory for compliance with CDC infection control procedures includes:
A)wearing a laboratory coat over street clothes
B)carefully washing gloves after handling each urine specimen
C)keeping food in tightly sealed containers in the specimen refrigerator
D)wearing masks and protective eyewear when performing a reagent test
A)wearing a laboratory coat over street clothes
B)carefully washing gloves after handling each urine specimen
C)keeping food in tightly sealed containers in the specimen refrigerator
D)wearing masks and protective eyewear when performing a reagent test
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61
The medical assistant is responsible for making sure laboratory specimens are properly labeled and prepared for shipping to the referral laboratory.Describe this procedure.
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62
Refrigeration of urine can cause __________urates or phosphates to settle out of a urine sample.
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63
The __________ is a network of capillaries where filtration of waste materials occurs in the nephron unit.
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64
__________ is the membrane that collects the filtrate from the afferent arterioles of the nephron unit.
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65
__________ may occur as the first sign of liver disease; the urine appears yellow-brown or greenish orange.
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66
A(n) __________ is ordered if the physician suspects that the patient has a UTI and needs to determine the most effective antibiotic to prescribe.
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67
Oval fat bodies are __________, which creates a sharp microscopic image of this urinary product.
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68
__________ occurs when the blood supply to an area is held back or obstructed.
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69
A laboratory test identified as the __________ is the analysis considered the best possible diagnostic tool for a specific health problem.
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70
__________ is the study of poisonous substances and their effects on the body.
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71
A patient who shows a decrease in the volume of urine produced is said to have __________.
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72
You are instructing a patient on how to obtain and manage a urine specimen at home.What education should you provide?
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73
Describe the changes that occur in urine when it has been sitting at room temperature.
• Clarity
• Color
• pH
• Glucose
• Ketones
• Bilirubin
• Blood
• Nitrite
• Bacteria
• Clarity
• Color
• pH
• Glucose
• Ketones
• Bilirubin
• Blood
• Nitrite
• Bacteria
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74
__________ are the end-products of fat metabolism and are detected in the urine samples of patients with uncontrolled diabetes.
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75
__________ may be the first indication of diabetes mellitus.
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76
Crushing injuries and MIs can result in __________.
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77
You are working in a PCP office that routinely performs work-related drug screenings.Describe several methods that may be used to ensure that the urine sample has not been adulterated.
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