Deck 2: Overview of an Integrated Audit

Question 1

The planning process begins with an evaluation of entry level controls.

Answer 1

True

Question 2

The process of client acceptance or continuance involves:

A) deciding whether the auditor is willing to audit the client.
B) wants the firm as a client.
C) can do a good job auditing the client.
D) All of the above.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

An integrated audit consists of:

A) examining the effectiveness of internal control.
B) examining the fairness of the financial statements.
C) Both a and

Answer 3

C

Question 4

The contract between the audit firm and client is called the engagement letter.

Question 5

The AICPA generates all field standards.

Question 6

A client keeps his records in a shoebox with little evidence supporting the entries. This is sufficient to support conclusions in generating an audit report.

Question 7

The auditor begins with tests of internal control.

Question 8

If the auditor disagrees with management's assertion of internal control, the auditor:

A) ignores this and issues the proper opinion.
B) notes this in the footnotes.
C) notes this in the audit report.
D) None of the above.

Question 9

If an entity's financial records do not contain sufficient evidentiary matter the auditor must:

A) issue a qualified opinion.
B) decline the audit.
C) perform the audit and obtain the evidence itself.
D) None of the above.

Question 10

An audit firm must submit a proposal if a potential new client inquires about their audit services.

Question 11

The PCAOB oversees the securities markets.

Question 12

Generally accepted auditing standards refer to those standards that have been adopted by the PCAOB.

Question 13

An audit of a non-public firm is identical to that for a public firm.

Question 14

Analytical procedures pinpoint the exact location of fraud.

Question 15

One of the fundamental concepts concerns valuation and allocation.

Question 16

Who issues standards for audits of non-public companies?

A) The AICPA.
B) The SEC.
C) The PCAOB.
D) All of the above.

Question 17

The integrity of management plays a key role in deciding whether or not to accept a client.

Question 18

The auditor assesses the internal controls of a non-public client for the purpose of planning.

Question 19

Publically-traded company refers to any SEC registrant.

Question 20

All assertions apply to every account.

Question 21

Management assertions contain which of the following:

A) statements concerning that accounts exist.
B) statements that all liabilities are included in the balance sheet.
C) statements that the financial statements are presented fairly.
D) All of the above.

Question 22

The reason auditors collect evidence is to:

A) determine if management's assertions are fair.
B) obtain a reasonable basis for forming an opinion on the financial statements.
C) obtain a reasonable basis for forming an opinion on the effectiveness of ICFR.
D) All of the above.

Question 23

If the auditor decides that the internal controls are not designed appropriately then:

A) the auditor tests those controls in-depth.
B) the auditor performs tests of internal control for those transactions and accounts deemed risky.
C) the auditor performs substantive procedures.
D) All of the above.

Question 24

Which of the following assertions address presentation and disclosure:

A) existence.
B) accuracy and valuation.
C) rights and obligations.
D) Both b and

Question 25

The amount of evidence collected during an audit has a direct relationship to:

A) expected risk.
B) accuracy of management assertions.
C) appropriateness of management assertions.
D) All of the above.

Question 26

Assessing the design effectiveness of the internal control system involves:

A) reviewing the controls that are missing.
B) reviewing the controls present.
C) deciding if those controls are operating as intended.
D) All of the above.

Question 27

The auditor's finding with respect to internal control is:

A) assessed at the beginning of the audit as part of the ICFR review.
B) assessed during substantive testing procedures.
C) assessed during testing of internal control.
D) All of the above.

Question 28

Which assertion(s) is met if proper cut-off is achieved:

A) right and obligations.
B) completeness.
C) existence or occurrence.
D) Both b and

Question 29

Assessing the design effectiveness of the internal control system involves:

A) determining if the controls are appropriate.
B) determining if the controls operate as designed.
C) determining who is responsible for internal control.
D) All of the above.

Question 30

Planning an audit involves which of the following steps:

A) risk assessment.
B) collecting information concerning the client's information system.
C) collecting information about the client.
D) All of the above.

Question 31

If the auditor initially considers the internal control environment risky, but later during the audit concludes it to be adequate as a result of substantive procedures, the auditor:

A) should reflect the new assessment in its report on ICFR.
B) should increase substantive testing.
C) should issue a new opinion on the financial statements.
D) should issue a new opinion on the ICFR.

Question 32

The balance sheet for a client shows a balance of $5,000. This is an example of which assertion:

A) completeness.
B) right and obligations.
C) valuation and allocation.
D) All of the above.

Question 33

Which of the following assertions address account balances at the period end:

A) completeness.
B) right and obligations.
C) existence.
D) All of the above.

Question 34

In order to obtain evidence regarding valuation of accounts receivable, the auditor is likely to:

A) send out confirmations to the client's debtors requesting amount owed verification.
B) inquire of management as to the accuracy of sales transactions.
C) examine completed confirmation requests for discrepancies between debtor and client amount.
D) All of the above.

Question 35

Information system refers to:

A) the client's accounting information system.
B) the system by which management collects and analyzes information.
C) the computer system used by the client.
D) Both a and

Question 36

The audit is concluded with:

A) the audit opinion on the financial statements.
B) the audit opinion on the ICFR.
C) wrap-up procedures.
D) All of the above.

Question 37

For public companies, the auditor also reviews which of the following on a regular basis:

A) the 10Qs filed quarterly with the SEC.
B) the 8-Ks (if filed) with the SEC.
C) the 10Ks filed annually with the SEC.
D) All of the above.

Question 38

The ICFR is important because:

A) it links the client's financial statements and the risks associated with financial reporting.
B) it links the information system and the risks associated with financial reporting.
C) it provides readers with an assessment of how effective the internal control system is.
D) All of the above.

Question 39

Which of the following assertions do NOT address classes of transactions and events for the period under audit:

A) rights and obligations.
B) completeness.
C) cut-off.
D) None of the above.

Question 40

Which of the following assertions would not apply to short-term debt:

A) existence.
B) completeness.
C) right and obligations.
D) All of the above.

Question 41

Materiality decisions are based on:

A) qualitative factors.
B) quantitative factors.
C) the audit fees.
D) Both a and

Question 42

If an auditor concludes the financial statements contain only immaterial errors, then the auditor should:

A) correct the errors.
B) have the client correct the errors.
C) issue an unqualified ("clean") opinion on the financial statements.
D) issue a qualified opinion on the financial statements.

Question 43

Which of the below is an example of an inherent risk:

A) the risk that the economy will sink into recession.
B) the risk that the firm will be a take-over target.
C) the risk that a particular financial statement account is incorrect.
D) All of the above.

Question 44

Evidence must be:

A) sufficient.
B) persuasive.
C) convincing.
D) Both a and

Question 45

Which of the following could cause an auditor to refuse to submit a proposal for a prospective audit client:

A) a senior sales V.P.'s 10 year-old conviction for tax evasion.
B) a board of directors comprised of management's close friends.
C) a reputation for high employee turnover.
D) None of the above.

Question 46

Engagement risk is defined as:

A) the risk that the client will not pay you on time.
B) the risk that being associated with the client will not be good for the accounting firm.
C) the risk that the client will not reappoint the auditor after the first year.
D) All of the above.

Question 47

An example of qualitative materiality is:

A) an error involving an amount of great magnitude.
B) an error involving management oversight of small amounts.
C) a misstatement caused by management fraud.
D) All of the above.

Question 48

Which of the below depicts the correct path of action an auditor takes in assessing assertions:

A) management assertions-audit procedures-risk assessment.
B) management assertions-risk assessment-audit evidence.
C) management assertions-risk assessment-audit procedures.
D) management assertions-material risk assessment-audit procedures.

Question 49

Absolute assurance:

A) is desired and strived for by auditors.
B) is not cost-effective.
C) is not possible given the estimation of many numbers in the financial statements.
D) Both b and

Question 50

Which of the following source of evidence would be the most reliable:

A) a written confirmation sent by a bank directly to the auditor.
B) a written confirmation sent by a debtor to the client.
C) a written document produced electronically by a client with good internal controls.
D) a written document in the form of a fax sent by a debtor to the client indicating acceptance of a special offer.

Question 51

Due professional care applies to:

A) sample selection.
B) follows appropriate audit standards.
C) accepts professional guidance.
D) All of the above apply to due professional care.

Question 52

Audit risk involves:

A) only the financial statements.
B) only the ICFR.
C) both the financial statements and ICFR.
D) only cases where fraud exists.

Question 53

Audit risk is defined as:

A) the risk that the client is committing fraud.
B) the risk associated with a specific client.
C) the risk that the auditor fails to detect a material misstatement.
D) All of the above.

Question 54

An auditor selects a sample using a random number generator, even though she believes the account being audited presents increased risk. This is a violation of:

A) professional care.
B) professional skepticism.
C) Both a and

Question 55

To come to an opinion on management's assertions, an auditor must:

A) obtain evidence in writing.
B) obtain evidence that is convincing.
C) obtain evidence that is appropriate and reliable.
D) All of the above.

Question 56

Judgment errors indicate:

A) the auditor behaved in a negligent manner.
B) the auditor failed to exhibit professional care.
C) the auditor failed to exhibit professional skepticism.
D) None of the above.

Question 57

The engagement letter:

A) must be generated before any audit work is performed.
B) cannot be generated until the audit firm communicates with the audit committee, in writing, about independence.
C) includes the names of staff and managers working on the engagement.
D) All of the above.

Question 58

An auditor encounters an error and decides not to suggest an adjustment. This is an example of:

A) professional skepticism.
B) professional judgment.
C) materiality decision.
D) Both b and

Question 59

As part of the proposal process the auditor:

A) determines if the potential client is a good fit.
B) determines of the auditor can perform an effective audit.
C) determines if the potential client management is reputed to be of good character.
D) All of the above.

Question 60

Auditors do not provide absolute assurance in an audit due to

A) Financial statement numbers are based on estimates.
B) Auditors usually examine a sample rather than all of a company's transactions.
C) Those who commit fraud go to great lengths to conceal their actions.
D) All of the above.

Question 61

The reporting standards addresses:

A) an expression of an opinion.
B) independence.
C) supervision.
D) understanding of internal control.

Question 62

Why are analytical procedures a required step in audit planning?

Question 63

Match the scenario below with the audit standard(s) and the number within the standard . Some examples may have more than one standard that applies.
Audit standards:
-General #1, #2, or #3
-Field work #1, #2, or #3
-Reporting #1, #2, #3, or #4

SCENARIOS:
(a) Larry works for a CPA firm that has few supervisory auditors.
(b) Mary-Ellen becomes bored with auditing payroll, so she simply checks off the steps on a work program as being completed without doing the work.
(c) Bruce refuses to attend his firm's training sessions, attending a baseball game instead. He has another staff member sign him in and out.
(d) The audit firm runs out of time and thus stops collecting evidence despite worries that there might be errors in one account.
(e) The staff at a firm like the client, so they raise the materiality threshold beyond the limit generally set by the firm.
(f) The audit report states that GAAP was used in preparing the financial statements, even though the client deviated from GAAP in several material respects.
(g) The auditors withhold the audit report because they have not been paid.
(h) The auditors perform the tests of internal control as they perform the substantive tests in order to save the client money.
(i) The client changes accounting methods with respect to inventory, but failed to restate its financial statements for the prior periods. The auditors decided to let it go since they ran out of time.
(j) The auditors fail to audit the footnote disclosures provided by the client.
(k) The auditor is concerned that there are material errors he has not found and so refuses to issue an audit report.

Question 64

Auditors auditing nonpublic companies must follow:

A) all audit standards.
B) only those standards issued by the PCAOB.
C) only those standards issued by the AICPA.
D) None of the above.

Question 65

List the steps required in client acceptance, in exact order. Also include important factors the auditor would consider in deciding whether or not to accept the client.

Question 66

What is the value of auditors going through a formal process of linking management assertions to audit procedures to collect evidence? How does this process improve the audit?

Question 67

Auditing Standard #5 requires:

A) auditors perform tests of internal control.
B) auditors have technical competence to perform audits.
C) auditors exercise professional skepticism.
D) Both b and

Question 68

You are the auditor for a nonpublic company, "A Golden Rule Carpentry." The company has a 12/31 fiscal year end. During your audit, you did not identify any material misstatements in the financial statements.
Required:
(a) Draft the appropriate audit report for the financial statement audit of"A Golden Rule Carpentry."
(b)What assurances are provided in the audit report when the auditor states that the financial statements "present fairly ...in conformity with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America"?
(c)How does the audit report refer to materiality, and how does it relate to your response to (b)?
(d)How do you think the auditor should respond upon finding a misstatement that he or she believes is material, and the client disagrees? In other words, client management believes the misstatement is not material?

Question 69

The three sections or groups of audit standards are:

A) field work, general, and final.
B) field work, reporting, and general.
C) field work, testing, and internal control review.
D) field work, general, and overall.

Question 70

Non public companies:

A) do not have to be audited.
B) are not required to have an audit of their ICFR.
C) follow different standards than public companies.
D) present little, if any, risk to auditors.

Question 71

Is it possible that an auditor can make a professional judgment error and still be behaving with due professional care? Explain.

Question 72

GAAS refers to:

A) ten auditing standards grouped into three sections.
B) those auditing standards that apply only to audits of public companies.
C) accounting principles generally accepted.
D) None of the above.

Question 73

Which of the following would be a violation of the general auditing standards:

A) the auditor accepts an engagement from a firm for whom his brother-in-law works as the controller.
B) the auditor hires marketing majors because it cannot afford accounting graduates but trains them thoroughly.
C) the auditor allows second-year staff to supervise beginning staff.
D) All of the above are violations.

Question 74

Control risk is:

A) the risk that inventory will not be sold.
B) the risk that the internal controls will not disclose material errors.
C) the risk that the economy will sink into recession.
D) the risk that accounts receivable will be uncollected.

Question 75

Detection risk is:

A) the possibility that a misstatement will be missed when audit steps are performed.
B) the possibility that accounts receivable will be uncollected.
C) the possibility that inventory will not be sold.
D) Both b and

Question 76

Describe in detail the audit steps required in performing an audit from beginning to end. Identify how you would address each of the auditing standards in your work.
DICUSSION QUESTIONS

Question 77

The field work standards address:

A) due professional care.
B) independence.
C) attention to GAAP.
D) obtaining sufficient evidential matter.