Deck 17: Digestive System Disorders

Question 1

What does the term gluconeogenesis refer to?

A) Breakdown of glycogen to produce glucose
B) Conversion of excess glucose into glycogen for storage
C) Formation of glucose from protein and fat
D) Breakdown of glucose into carbon dioxide and water

Answer 1

Formation of glucose from protein and fat

Question 2

The early stage of vomiting causes:

A) metabolic alkalosis.
B) metabolic acidosis.
C) increased respirations.
D) increased excretion of hydrogen ions.

Answer 2

metabolic alkalosis.

Question 3

In which structure is oxygenated blood (arterial) mixed with unoxygenated blood (venous) so as to support the functions of the structure?

A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Small intestine
D) Spleen

Answer 3

Liver

Question 4

Which of the following statements applies to bile salts?

A) They give feces the characteristic brown color.
B) They are enzymes used to break down fats into free fatty acids.
C) They emulsify lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins.
D) They are excreted in the feces.

Question 5

Which of the following applies to the act of swallowing?

A) It requires coordination of cranial nerves V, IX, X, and XII.
B) It is entirely voluntary.
C) It is controlled by a center in the hypothalamus.
D) It does not affect respiration.

Question 6

Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?

A) Stomach
B) Duodenum
C) Ileum
D) Ascending colon

Question 7

Which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid?

A) Parietal cells
B) Chief cells
C) Mucous cells
D) Gastrin cells

Question 8

Which of the following processes is likely to occur in the body immediately after a meal?

A) Lipolysis
B) Ketogenesis
C) Gluconeogenesis
D) Glycogenesis

Question 9

Yellow or greenish stained vomitus usually indicates the presence of:

A) bile.
B) blood.
C) protein.
D) bacteria.

Question 10

The presence of food in the intestine stimulates intestinal activity but inhibits gastric activity through the:

A) defecation reflex.
B) enterogastric reflex.
C) vomiting reflex.
D) autodigestive reflex.

Question 11

Which of the following stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract?

A) Sympathetic nervous system
B) Vagus nerve
C) Increased saliva
D) Absence of food in the system

Question 12

What is the definition of dysphagia?

A) A herniation of the gastric mucosa through a segment of weakened muscle
B) Recurrent reflux of chyme into the esophagus
C) Absence of a connection of the esophagus to the stomach
D) Difficulty in swallowing

Question 13

Severe vomiting can lead to metabolic acidosis because of increased:

A) ketones produced.
B) CO₂ retained in the lungs and kidneys.
C) hypovolemia and lactic acid production.
D) metabolic rate.

Question 14

Normally, proteins or amino acids are required to produce all of the following EXCEPT:

A) peptide hormones.
B) clotting factors and antibodies.
C) cellular energy.
D) hemoglobin.

Question 15

Small, hidden amounts of blood in stool are referred to as:

A) melena.
B) occult blood.
C) frank blood.
D) hematemesis.

Question 16

The visceral peritoneum:

A) lines the abdominal wall.
B) hangs from the stomach over the loops of small intestine.
C) contains many pain receptors.
D) forms the outer covering of the stomach.

Question 17

What does the defecation reflex require?

A) Stimulation by the sympathetic nervous system
B) Contraction of the internal anal sphincter
C) Coordination through the sacral spinal cord
D) Voluntary relaxation of pelvic muscles

Question 18

Which of the following breaks protein down into peptides?

A) Amylase
B) Peptidase
C) Lactase
D) Trypsin

Question 19

When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, which hormone stimulates the release of pancreatic secretions that contains very high bicarbonate ion content?

A) Gastrin
B) Secretin
C) Cholecystokinin
D) Histamine

Question 20

Which of the following is contained in pancreatic exocrine secretions?

A) Bicarbonate ion
B) Hydrochloric acid
C) Activated digestive enzymes
D) Insulin

Question 21

The pathophysiology of peptic ulcer disease may involve any of the following EXCEPT:

A) decreased resistance of the mucosal barrier.
B) increased stimulation of pepsin and acid secretions.
C) infection by H. pylori.
D) increased stimulation of mucus-producing glands.

Question 22

Oral candidiasis is considered to:

A) be a common bacterial infection in infants and young children.
B) cause painful ulcerations in the mucosa and tongue.
C) cause white patches in the mucosa that cannot be scraped off.
D) be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth.

Question 23

What is frequently the first manifestation of stress ulcers?

A) Abdominal discomfort between meals and at night
B) Nausea and diarrhea
C) Hematemesis
D) Sharp colicky pain with food intake

Question 24

What does congenital esophageal atresia cause?

A) Direct passage of saliva and food from the mouth into the trachea
B) Repeated reflux of gastric secretions into the esophagus
C) No fluid or food entering the stomach
D) Gastric distention and cramps

Question 25

Why does herpes simplex infection tend to recur?

A) Active infection is usually asymptomatic.
B) The virus builds up a resistance.
C) The virus persists in latent form in sensory nerve ganglia.
D) The virus mutates; therefore, no effective immunity develops.

Question 26

Bilirubin is a product of:

A) hemolysis of red blood cells (RBCs) and breakdown of hemoglobin.
B) production of excess chyme and bile.
C) mixing of undigested food and gastric secretions.
D) accumulation of white blood cells (WBCs) due to infection.

Question 27

What does congenital pyloric stenosis involve?

A) Absence of peristalsis in the lower section of the stomach
B) Failure of an opening to develop between the stomach and duodenum
C) Hypertrophy of smooth muscle in the pylorus
D) Thickening of the gastric wall due to chronic inflammation

Question 28

Which of the following applies to cleft palate?

A) The mandibular processes do not fuse.
B) The hard and soft palates do not fuse during the first trimester of pregnancy.
C) Exposure to environmental factors in the last trimester causes the defect.
D) Speech and eating are not affected.

Question 29

Which of the following individuals is likely to develop acute gastritis?

A) A long-term, heavy cigarette smoker
B) Patient with arthritis taking enteric-coated aspirin on a daily basis
C) A person with an autoimmune reaction in the gastric mucosa
D) An individual with an allergy to shellfish

Question 30

Following gastric resection, the onset of nausea, cramps, and dizziness immediately after meals indicates:

A) a large volume of chyme has entered the intestines, causing distention.
B) severe hypoglycemia has developed.
C) the pylorus is restricting the flow of chyme.
D) bile and pancreatic secretions are irritating the small intestine.

Question 31

What is a common cause of hiatal hernia?

A) An abnormally long esophagus
B) Increased intra-abdominal pressure
C) Stenosis of the hiatus in the diaphragm
D) A small fundus in the stomach

Question 32

What does the term periodontitis refer to?

A) Erosion of the enamel tooth surface
B) Bacterial damage to the teeth and surrounding alveolar bone
C) Inflammation and infection of the gingivae
D) Formation of calcified plaque on the tooth

Question 33

What is/are common location(s) for oral cancer?

A) Floor of the mouth or tongue borders
B) Mucosa lining the cheeks
C) Hard and soft palate
D) Gingivae near the teeth

Question 34

What would be the result of chronic bleeding from gastric carcinoma?

A) Occult blood in the stool and anemia
B) Hematemesis and shock
C) Abdominal pain and distention
D) Red blood on the surface of the stool

Question 35

Prolonged or severe stress predisposes to peptic ulcer disease because:

A) of reduced blood flow to the gastric wall and mucous glands.
B) of reduced bicarbonate content in bile and pancreatic secretions.
C) stress increases the number of acid- and pepsinogen-secreting cells.
D) increased epinephrine increases motility.

Question 36

Which of the following would a perforated gastric ulcer likely cause?

A) Severe anemia
B) Chemical peritonitis
C) Severe gastric hemorrhage
D) Pyloric obstruction

Question 37

What is a common sign of acute gastritis?

A) Colicky right upper quadrant pain
B) Vomiting and anorexia
C) Projectile vomiting after eating
D) Diarrhea with abdominal distention

Question 38

What is a common cause of gastroenteritis due to Salmonella?

A) Unrefrigerated custards or salad dressings
B) Poorly canned foods
C) Raw or undercooked poultry or eggs
D) Contaminated water

Question 39

What does the pathophysiology of chronic gastritis include?

A) Atrophy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretions
B) Hyperchlorhydria and chronic peptic ulcers
C) Frequent vomiting and diarrhea
D) Episodes of acute inflammation and edema of the mucosa

Question 40

A patient with acquired pyloric stenosis would likely:

A) have an increase in appetite.
B) have chronic diarrhea.
C) develop severe colicky pains.
D) vomit undigested food from previous meals.

Question 41

What causes massive inflammation and necrosis in acute pancreatitis?

A) Formation of multiple thrombi and ischemia
B) Infection by intestinal microbes
C) Immune complex reaction
D) Autodigestion of tissue by pancreatic enzymes

Question 42

What is the most common type of hepatitis transmitted by blood transfusion?

A) HAV
B) HBV
C) HCV
D) HEV

Question 43

Why does mild hyperbilirubinemia occur in newborns?

A) Blood incompatibility between mother and child
B) Damage to many erythrocytes during the birth process
C) Poor circulation and albumin transport for bilirubin
D) Immature liver cannot process bilirubin quickly enough

Question 44

What can be concluded if the hepatitis B antigen level remains high in the serum?

A) Acute infection is present.
B) Chronic infection has developed.
C) Liver failure is in progress.
D) The usual prolonged recovery from any viral infection is occurring.

Question 45

What is the likely effect of long-term exposure to a hepatotoxin?

A) Full recovery to normal tissue after the toxic material has been removed
B) Acute onset of vomiting, steatorrhea, and jaundice
C) Continued mild inflammation of the liver without permanent damage
D) Gradual irreversible damage to the liver and cirrhosis

Question 46

A factor that may precipitate encephalopathy with cirrhosis is the elevated:

A) serum urea.
B) conjugated bilirubin.
C) serum ammonia.
D) serum pH.

Question 47

In patients with cirrhosis, serum ammonia may increase when:

A) ingesting excessive lipids.
B) bleeding occurs in the digestive tract.
C) an increase in unconjugated bilirubin occurs in the serum.
D) less bile is produced.

Question 48

Which of the following applies to hepatitis A infection?

A) It is also called serum hepatitis.
B) It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route.
C) It contains a double strand of DNA.
D) It frequently leads to chronic hepatitis.

Question 49

Malnutrition may develop in children with celiac disease because of:

A) damage to the intestinal villi.
B) obstruction in the pancreatic ducts.
C) acidosis, preventing activation of digestive enzymes.
D) insufficient bile for absorption.

Question 50

During the course of a hepatitis B infection, the onset of jaundice occurs in the:

A) incubation period.
B) preicteric stage.
C) icteric stage.
D) posticteric stage.

Question 51

How does chemical peritonitis and shock frequently result from acute pancreatitis?

A) Inflammation and increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum affect fluid balance.
B) Erosion in the intestinal wall causes release of bacteria.
C) Fat necrosis and hypocalcemia develop.
D) Secretions from the pancreas and intestine become more acidic.

Question 52

Which of the following is a major cause of primary hepatocellular cancer?

A) Metastatic tumors
B) Acute hepatitis
C) Long-term exposure to certain chemicals
D) Chronic cholelithiasis

Question 53

What is the primary cause of increased bleeding tendencies associated with cirrhosis?

A) Anemia and leucopenia
B) Jaundice and pruritus
C) Recurrent infections
D) Deficit of vitamin K and prothrombin

Question 54

What is the primary cause of esophageal varices?

A) Increased hydrostatic pressure in the veins
B) Alcohol irritating the mucosa
C) Failure to inactivate estrogen
D) Poor nutritional status

Question 55

What indicates the presence of third-stage alcohol hepatitis?

A) Below normal blood levels of AST and ALT
B) Upper left quadrant tenderness and dull pain
C) A small, firm, nodular liver and portal hypertension
D) Decreased production of blood clotting factors

Question 56

Obstruction of the biliary tract by gallstones is referred to as:

A) cholelithiasis.
B) cholecystitis.
C) cholangitis.
D) choledocholithiasis.

Question 57

Which of the following best describes steatorrhea?

A) A light gray-colored stool
B) A tarry black stool
C) Bulky, fatty, foul-smelling stools
D) Watery stools with mucus and blood

Question 58

What is the major effect when a gallstone obstructs the cystic duct?

A) Intrahepatic jaundice
B) Acute pancreatitis
C) Severe colicky pain in upper right quadrant
D) Inflammation and infection in the gallbladder

Question 59

Which factors contribute to ascites in patients with cirrhosis?

A) Increased aldosterone and deficit of albumin
B) Severe anemia and increased serum bilirubin
C) Hypokalemia and increased serum ammonia
D) Hyperproteinemia and persistent hypotension

Question 60

Predisposing factors to cholelithiasis include excessive:

A) bilirubin or cholesterol concentration in the bile.
B) water content in the bile.
C) bile salts in the bile.
D) bicarbonate ions in the bile.

Question 61

To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?

A) Lungs
B) Stomach
C) Liver
D) Spleen

Question 62

What causes the characteristic rigid abdomen found in the patient with peritonitis?

A) Increased fluid and gas, causing abdominal distention
B) Inflammation of the peritoneum and organs, causing a firm mass in the abdomen
C) Inflamed peritoneum, resulting in reflex abdominal muscle spasm
D) Voluntary contraction of the abdominal muscles as a protective mechanism

Question 63

What is the dietary requirement for a child with celiac disease?

A) Low sodium, high fat
B) High carbohydrate, low protein
C) High calorie with vitamin supplements
D) Gluten-free

Question 64

Stools that are more liquid and contain mucus and frank blood are typical of:

A) diverticulitis.
B) ulcerative colitis.
C) Crohn's disease.
D) celiac disease.

Question 65

Choose the significant change in arterial blood gases expected with prolonged severe vomiting:

A) Increased bicarbonate ion, increased PCO₂, serum pH 7.4
B) Decreased bicarbonate ion, decreased PCO₂, serum pH 7.35
C) Increased bicarbonate ion, decreased PCO₂, serum pH 7.35
D) Decreased bicarbonate ion, increased PCO₂, serum pH 7.45

Question 66

What is the cause of inflammatory bowel disease?

A) Physical and emotional stress
B) An autoimmune reaction
C) A combination of recessive genes
D) Idiopathic

Question 67

What usually initiates acute appendicitis?

A) Infection in the appendix
B) An episode of severe diarrhea
C) Obstruction of the lumen of the appendix
D) Eating a low-fiber diet

Question 68

What is a typical early sign of cancer in the ascending colon?

A) Change in shape of the stool
B) Incomplete emptying
C) Mild but persistent pain in the lower left quadrant
D) Occult blood in the stool

Question 69

What pain is typical of diverticulitis?

A) Lower left quadrant
B) Lower right quadrant
C) Sharp, colicky, periumbilical
D) Lower abdominal pain, radiating into the groin

Question 70

What would be the likely outcome from chemical peritonitis related to a perforated gallbladder?

A) Leakage of intestinal bacteria into blood and the peritoneal cavity
B) Massive hemorrhage and shock
C) Breakdown of the gallstones
D) Increasing peristalsis with intermittent painful spasms

Question 71

Which of the following is a typical indicator of an intestinal obstruction caused by paralytic ileus?

A) Excessive audible bowel sounds
B) Intermittent colicky pain
C) Severe steady abdominal pain
D) Visible peristalsis

Question 72

With acute appendicitis, localized pain and tenderness in the lower right quadrant results from:

A) increased peristalsis in the adjacent colon.
B) inflammation and stretching of the appendiceal wall.
C) increased gas and fluid inside the appendix.
D) local inflammation of the parietal peritoneum.

Question 73

How may a fistula form with Crohn's disease?

A) Lack of peristalsis, leading to dilated areas of intestine
B) Fibrosis and thickening of the wall, causing obstruction
C) Erosion of the mucosa, causing bleeding
D) Recurrent inflammation, necrosis, and fibrosis, forming a connection between intestinal loops

Question 74

How does iron deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?

A) Loss of surface area for absorption in the ileum
B) Bone marrow depression by toxic wastes
C) Chronic blood loss in stools
D) Insufficient hydrochloric acid for iron absorption

Question 75

A congenital condition in which parasympathetic innervation is missing from a section of the colon, impairing motility is referred to as:

A) diverticulitis.
B) Crohn's disease.
C) irritable bowel syndrome.
D) Hirschsprung's disease.

Question 76

How does pelvic inflammatory disease frequently lead to bacterial peritonitis?

A) Chemical irritation by excessive ovarian and uterine secretions causes inflammation.
B) Ulceration and perforation of the uterus allow the bacteria to spread.
C) Infection spreads through the fallopian tubes directly into the peritoneal cavity.
D) Gangrene in the uterine wall spreads through into the pelvic cavity.

Question 77

What are the typical changes occurring with Crohn's disease?

A) Degeneration and flattening of the villi in the small intestine
B) Multiple herniations of the mucosa through weak areas of the muscularis
C) A continuous area of mucosal inflammation and ulceration in the rectum and colon
D) Inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal areas

Question 78

What causes hypovolemic shock to develop with intestinal obstruction?

A) Continued vomiting and fluid shift into the intestine
B) Hemorrhage into the intestine
C) Rupture of the intestinal wall
D) Repeated bouts of severe diarrhea

Question 79

How does a volvulus cause localized gangrene in the intestine?

A) Hypotension and shock cause ischemia.
B) The mesenteric arteries are compressed in the twisted section of intestine.
C) A section of intestine herniates between the muscles of the abdominal wall.
D) The distention of the intestinal wall causes increased permeability of the tissue.

Question 80

How does localized peritonitis develop from acute appendicitis before rupture?

A) The omentum walls off the inflamed area.
B) Intestinal bacteria escape through the necrotic appendiceal wall.
C) The obstructing object inside the appendix causes edema.
D) Bacteria escape into the circulating blood.