Deck 3: Cell Structure and Function

Question 1

Which of the following steps in the breakdown of glucose directly requires the use of oxygen?

A) glycolysis
B) citric acid cycle
C) electron transport chain
D) acetyl CoA conversion
E) None of these require oxygen.

Answer 1

C.

Question 2

The sum of all of the chemical reactions that occur in a cell collectively are called

A) respiration.
B) anabolism.
C) photosynthesis.
D) metabolism.
E) reaction summary.

Answer 2

D.

Question 3

The gel-like fluid substance within a mitochondrion is called the

A) matrix.
B) cristae.
C) rugae.
D) effluvium.
E) villi.

Answer 3

A.

Question 4

Explain what occurs during endocytosis.

Question 5

What is the maximum number of ATP molecules produced during aerobic respiration?

A) 38
B) 36
C) 32
D) 2
E) 4

Question 6

List, in order, the stages of aerobic cellular respiration.

Question 7

Only glucose can be used as an energy source in the human body.

Question 8

Why is glycolysis believed to have evolved early in the history of life?

A) It breaks down sugar.
B) It produces energy.
C) It is present in most every type of cell.
D) It does not require oxygen.
E) It splits a 6-carbon molecule into two 3-carbon molecules.

Question 9

If you could remove all the phosphate in the cell, what would happen to the ATP cycle?

A) It would stop when all the ATP had been converted into ADP.
B) It would stop when all the ADP had been converted into ATP.
C) It would cycle faster because the lack of phosphate would drive the cycle.
D) It would cycle faster because of the buildup of ATP.
E) It would not affect the ATP cycle.

Question 10

The size of a metabolizing cell is limited by its

A) extracellular matrix.
B) function.
C) nuclear size.
D) surface area-to-volume ratio.
E) genome size.

Question 11

What are the folds in mitochondrial membranes called?

A) matrix
B) cristae
C) rugae
D) lumen
E) villi

Question 12

When ATP is broken down, heat is released.

Question 13

If the mitochondrion is the result of endosymbiosis, what membrane of the mitochondrion represents the engulfing vesicle?

A) the outer mitochondrial membrane
B) vacuole
C) cristae
D) matrix
E) grana

Question 14

The first day of football practice was rough on the squad. During practice, the players complained of cramps and sore muscles. Although there is evidence to suggest that many different factors may contribute to this, which of the following is most likely to play a role in the soreness?

A) glucose
B) alcohol
C) carbon dioxide
D) carbon monoxide
E) lactate

Question 15

________ are the fundamental units that make up all living things.

A) Compartments
B) Cells
C) Chromosomes
D) Coelom
E) Cristae

Question 16

In a metabolic pathway, substrate Z is broken down to form products Y and X. Y is further broken down into products V and W. How many enzymes are required for this metabolic pathway?

A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five

Question 17

Whose work proved conclusively that spontaneous generation of life from nonlife was not possible?

A) Louis Pasteur
B) Charles Darwin
C) John Ray
D) Walther Flemming
E) Georges Cuvier

Question 18

The reason that metabolizing cells are small in size is because

A) cells influence nearby cells to divide.
B) the surface area of a cell must be able to accomplish nutrient/waste exchange.
C) cells need to dissipate heat effectively.
D) mitosis occurs before cells reach a certain size.
E) cells need to communicate with adjacent cells.

Question 19

Since all organisms carry on cellular respiration, all living cells must contain mitochondria.

Question 20

Fermentation produces more ATP than does aerobic respiration.

Question 21

Which of the following structures are present in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A) plasma membrane
B) nucleus
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) Golgi body
E) mitochondria

Question 22

What type of microscopy provides a three-dimensional view of the surface of an object?

A) compound light microscope
B) transmission electron microscope
C) scanning electron microscope
D) phase contrast microscope
E) ultraviolet microscope

Question 23

The cytoplasm is not considered a cellular organelle.

Question 24

Archaea are considered the evolutionary precursors to eukaryotic cells.

Question 25

The plasma membrane contains how many layers of phospholipids?

A) one
B) two
C) four
D) eight
E) sixteen

Question 26

Brett needs to distinguish two points that are 0.5 mm apart. What is the easiest way to do this?

A) Use a transmission electron microscope.
B) Use a compound light microscope.
C) Use his eyes.
D) Use a magnifying glass.
E) Use a scanning electron microscope.

Question 27

What is the name of the semi-fluid medium inside the cell?

A) nucleolus
B) cytoplasm
C) organelle
D) cytoskeleton
E) mitochondrion

Question 28

Biologists classify cells into two broad categories- animals and plants.

Question 29

The light microscope has a resolving power of

A) 0.1 mm.
B) 0.01 mm.
C) 0.0001 mm.
D) 0.000001 mm.
E) 0.00000001 mm.

Question 30

Because bacteria are prokaryotes, they do not have DNA.

Question 31

Paleontologists have discovered ancient prokaryotic fossils dated at over 3.5 billion years old. These fossils resemble prokaryotes that are capable of living in extreme conditions such as high temperature and salinity. What domain do these prokaryotes belong to?

A) Protists
B) Protoctista
C) Archaea
D) Archetista
E) Eukarya

Question 32

All of the following are possible origins of cell organelles in eukaryotes EXCEPT

A) invagination of the plasma membrane to form endoplasmic reticulum.
B) incorporation of engulfed heterotrophic bacteria to form mitochondria.
C) incorporation of engulfed autotrophic cyanobacteria to form chloroplasts.
D) a symbiotic relationship between a host cell and a prokaryote that was taken up but not destroyed.
E) groups of prokaryotic cells begin to live in a small group sharing products of metabolism.

Question 33

Viruses are not made up of cells. According to cell theory, this means what?

A) Viruses can cause disease.
B) Cells come only from pre-existing cells.
C) Cells can be infected by viruses.
D) Viruses are not living.
E) Cells and viruses are the same thing.

Question 34

Angela would like to look at living algae from pond water. What type of equipment should she use?

A) compound light microscope
B) transmission electron microscope
C) scanning electron microscope
D) magnifying glass
E) her naked eye

Question 35

Which of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane?

A) determines which substances enter and leave the cell
B) serves as a boundary between the cell and its environment
C) contains receptor sites which determine how the cell interacts with its environment
D) contains the genetic information
E) marks the cell as belonging to a particular individual

Question 36

What is the name of a photograph of a specimen obtained with a microscope?

A) negative
B) dermatome
C) thermograph
D) micrograph
E) chromatograph

Question 37

If a cube has sides of 3 nm, what are the surface area and the volume of the cube?

A) 24 nm², 8 nm³
B) 38 nm², 16 nm³
C) 54 nm², 27 nm³
D) 64 nm², 24 nm³
E) 18 nm², 6 nm³

Question 38

In the fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane, the phospholipid molecules are oriented so that the ________ heads are facing the outside environment and the ________ tails are facing the interior of the membrane.

A) hydrophobic, hydrophilic
B) hydrophilic, hydrophobic
C) autotrophic, heterotrophic
D) heterotrophic, autotrophic
E) ectothermic, endothermic

Question 39

The phospholipid bilayer that surrounds/maintains the integrity of a cell is called a

A) plasma membrane.
B) Sanger enclosure.
C) hydrophobic membrane.
D) dialysis membrane.
E) mosaic membrane.

Question 40

In developing embryos such as a chicken, what restores the amount of surface area needed for exchange requirements?

A) respiration
B) catabolism
C) anabolism
D) cell division
E) assimilation

Question 41

Which of the following does not utilize active transport?

A) movement of oxygen from the lungs into the blood
B) concentrating iodine ions in the thyroid gland
C) absorbing sugar in the gut
D) water homeostasis in the kidneys
E) movement of sodium and potassium in nerve cells

Question 42

Brad placed a drop of blood in some distilled water. What happened in the red blood cells?

A) The cells shrunk.
B) The cells burst.
C) The cells did not change.
D) The cells divided into two identical cells.
E) The cellular metabolism increased in rate.

Question 43

Sheree observed an amoeba feeding by engulfing the prey with its false feet or pseudopods. This process is known as

A) pinocytosis.
B) phagocytosis.
C) exocytosis.
D) facilitated transport.
E) osmosis.

Question 44

The nucleus of a cell in your thigh muscle contains the same genes as the nucleus of a cell in your brain.

Question 45

Which of the following processes moves large molecules across a membrane in the opposite direction of the others?

A) exocytosis
B) phagocytosis
C) pinocytosis
D) receptor-mediated endocytosis
E) endocytosis

Question 46

A solution is at equilibrium across a plasma membrane. If 50 molecules were to enter the cell, how many molecules would need to exit the cell in order to maintain the equilibrium?

A) 50
B) 75
C) 25
D) 0
E) 100

Question 47

The movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane is called

A) denaturation.
B) osmosis.
C) dispersion.
D) dissociation.
E) reconstitution.

Question 48

During a hurricane, salt water invades fresh water marshes causing many of the plants to die. The plants are killed because the salt water solution is ________ to the plants, drawing water from their cells.

A) isotonic
B) hypotonic
C) mesotonic
D) oligotonic
E) hypertonic

Question 49

Choose the CORRECT statement about solute concentrations or particles inside and outside the cell.

A) In a hypertonic solution, there are more particles inside the cell.
B) In a hypotonic solution, there are more particles outside the cell.
C) In an isotonic solution the amount of water inside and outside the cell is equal.
D) In a hypertonic solution, there is more water outside the cell.
E) In a hypotonic solution, there is more water inside the cell.

Question 50

In the sodium-potassium pump, sodium and potassium are both pumped out of the cell via active transport.

Question 51

Often when a person is admitted to the hospital, an intravenous solution of normal saline is begun. Since this does not harm the patient, what is the tonicity of normal saline compared to your blood?

A) hypertonic
B) isotonic
C) hypotonic
D) pretonic
E) osmotonic

Question 52

What cell structure is composed of a stack of slightly curved saccules that are important in packaging and secretion?

A) mitochondria
B) vacuoles
C) Golgi apparatus
D) lysosomes
E) endoplasmic reticulum

Question 53

What is the obvious dark-stained structure within the nucleus that contains ribosomal RNA called?

A) nucleus
B) nucleolus
C) nuclear envelope
D) nucleoplasm
E) endoplasmic reticulum

Question 54

Which of the following can cross the plasma membrane because of its selective permeability?

A) gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide
B) ions
C) large, polar molecules
D) large, nonpolar molecules
E) glycoproteins

Question 55

A short chain of sugar attached to a protein molecule on the plasma membrane is called

A) a protomembrane.
B) a protosugar.
C) a glycocalyx.
D) a glycolipid.
E) a glycoprotein.

Question 56

Which model currently describes the structure of the plasma membrane?

A) endosymbiont model
B) fluid-mosaic model
C) plasmagel-plasmasol model
D) lock and key model
E) induced-fit model

Question 57

The assisted transport of a molecule across the cell membrane without an expenditure of energy is known as what?

A) diffusion
B) facilitated transport
C) active transport
D) osmosis
E) crenation

Question 58

What is the function of cholesterol in the plasma membrane?

A) cell marker
B) receptor
C) support
D) channel
E) enzyme

Question 59

During exocytosis, the phospholipids present in the vesicle membrane will end up in the plasma membrane.

Question 60

The grainy-looking substance inside the nucleus is composed of

A) phospholipids.
B) DNA and proteins.
C) nucleoplasm.
D) ribosomes.
E) mitochondria.

Question 61

Which type of junctions must there be between cells to form a barrier?

A) adhesion junctions
B) gap junctions
C) tight junctions
D) channel junctions
E) free junctions

Question 62

Which structure in the human body will use flagella to move?

A) sperm
B) eggs
C) lining of the respiratory tract
D) lining of the uterine tubes
E) lining of the urinary system

Question 63

How large is a nuclear pore in the nuclear envelope?

A) larger than a ribosome
B) larger than the Golgi apparatus
C) larger than the endoplasmic reticulum
D) smaller than a ribosome
E) smaller than a protein

Question 64

What do the SER and RER have in common?

A) the presence of ribosomes
B) the formation of transport vesicles
C) the synthesis of phospholipids
D) the synthesis of proteins
E) the processing and modification of proteins

Question 65

What is the main function of the ribosomes in the cell?

A) to synthesize proteins
B) to synthesize DNA
C) to break down proteins into individual amino acids
D) to form the nuclear envelope
E) to provide strength and structural support for the cell membrane The

Question 66

Explain the functions of adhesion junctions, gap junctions, and tight junctions in human cells.

Question 67

Centrosomes are associated with

A) ribosomes.
B) mitochondria.
C) chromosomes.
D) microtubules.
E) lysosomes.

Question 68

Which organelle can be likened to a post office?

A) nucleus
B) nucleolus
C) mitochondria
D) endoplasmic reticulum
E) Golgi apparatus

Question 69

Which of the following is not a function of the cytoskeleton?

A) maintain a cell's shape
B) process proteins
C) anchor organelles
D) move organelles
E) move the entire cell

Question 70

Which protein filaments are bundled together to form cilia?

A) microtubules
B) actin filaments
C) intermediate filaments
D) centrosomes
E) None of these.

Question 71

Which of the following is not associated with the cytoskeleton?

A) intermediate filaments
B) microtubules
C) microbodies
D) actin filaments
E) centrosome

Question 72

What components make up the ribosomes?

A) proteins and rRNA
B) proteins and DNA
C) lipids and rRNA
D) carbohydrates and rRNA
E) proteins and DNA

Question 73

Which of the following would be a way of finishing this hypothesis about the function of the Golgi apparatus? If the Golgi apparatus is involved in packaging products for secretion, then

A) vesicles must travel from the Golgi to the cell surface.
B) vesicles must travel from the RER and SER to the Golgi apparatus.
C) the Golgi apparatus must be part of the endomembrane system.
D) the Golgi apparatus must consist of 3 to 20 slightly curved sacs.
E) the Golgi apparatus would contain proteins.

Question 74

Cilia are composed of microtubules while flagella are composed of actin filaments.

Question 75

Which of the following diseases would you expect in someone with malfunctioning cilia?

A) recurrent respiratory infections
B) heart attack
C) urinary infections
D) muscle paralysis
E) brittle bones

Question 76

What cellular organelle is especially abundant in phagocytic white blood cells?

A) nuclei
B) nucleoli
C) Golgi apparati
D) lysosomes
E) ribosomes

Question 77

In an experiment in the laboratory, a small colored molecule is injected into one cell. Within minutes, the molecule has entered the adjacent cells. What type of junctions connect these cells?

A) gap junctions
B) free junctions
C) adhesion junctions
D) tight junctions
E) actin junctions

Question 78

If a cell lacked ribosomes, it would not be able to

A) form a spindle apparatus.
B) synthesize proteins.
C) respire oxidatively.
D) break down fats.
E) produce ATP.

Question 79

A malfunction with the microtubules would interfere with mitosis and meiosis.

Question 80

Which of the following protein fibers is used for cellular movement and are extremely thin in size?

A) actin filaments
B) intermediate filaments
C) microtubules
D) centrosome
E) cilia