Deck 12: Pathophysiology

Question 1

The type of blood that may be administered to all people in an emergency, regardless of their blood type, is:

A) O negative.
B) AB positive.
C) AB negative.
D) O positive.

Answer 1

O negative.

Question 2

Which of the following barriers provides the greatest degree of specificity when eliminating foreign substances from the body?

A) Apocrine secretions
B) Inflammation
C) Anatomical barriers
D) Immunity

Answer 2

Immunity

Question 3

Which of the following terms refers to the movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration without the use of energy?

A) Diffusion
B) Facilitation
C) Osmosis
D) Active transport

Answer 3

Diffusion

Question 4

The study of the ways in which diseases interfere with normal body functions is called:

A) pathophysiology.
B) epidemiology.
C) immunology.
D) pathology.

Question 5

One of the primary functions of cortisol as it is released during the stress response is to:

A) inhibit lipolysis.
B) promote the release of beta-endorphins.
C) potentiate serotonin.
D) stimulate gluconeogenesis.

Question 6

Poisons released from bacterial cells when they die are known as:

A) endotoxins.
B) epitoxins.
C) exotoxins.
D) ectotoxins.

Question 7

Which of the following is NOT an acute inflammatory response?

A) Increased vascular permeability
B) Vasodilation
C) Cellular infiltration
D) Thrombolysis

Question 8

Which type of shock is differentiated from other types by the presence of laryngeal edema?

A) Anaphylactic
B) Septic
C) Cardiogenic
D) Hypovolemic

Question 9

The excess elimination of hydrogen ions, as may occur in vomiting, can result in:

A) metabolic alkalosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) respiratory acidosis.

Question 10

Mast cells activate the inflammatory response through:

A) degranulation and synthesis.
B) granulation and synthesis.
C) degranulation and agglutination.
D) granulation and agglutination.

Question 11

Which of the following is NOT one of the body's three chief lines of defense against infection and injury?

A) Homeopathic secretions
B) Inflammatory response
C) Anatomic barriers
D) Immune response

Question 12

Which of the following factors may contribute to the development of disease in geriatric patients?

A) Genetic predisposition
B) Preexisting disease(s)
C) Inadequate nutrition
D) All of the above

Question 13

Which of the following pH values indicates acidosis in the human body?

A) 7.35
B) 7.30
C) 7.40
D) 7.45

Question 14

The attraction of leukocytes to the site of inflammation during degranulation is called:

A) apoptosis.
B) histocompatibility.
C) chemotaxis.
D) catabolism.

Question 15

The most abundant cation in the intracellular fluid is:

A) potassium.
B) sodium.
C) magnesium.
D) calcium.

Question 16

The shift of intravascular fluid to the interstitial spaces is commonly called:

A) diuresis.
B) third-space fluid loss.
C) insensible water loss.
D) turgor.

Question 17

The process in which the size of a cell decreases as a result of a decreasing workload is known as:

A) hypertrophy.
B) metaplasia.
C) atrophy.
D) hyperplasia.

Question 18

Which of the following is NOT part of the body's response in secondary multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?

A) Inflammatory mediators enter the system.
B) Plasma protein systems are activated.
C) Endorphin release contributes to vasodilation.
D) Catecholamine release is inhibited.

Question 19

B lymphocytes are primarily responsible for:

A) neutralizing antigens.
B) producing antibodies.
C) directly attacking antigens.
D) producing antigens.

Question 20

Which of the following is TRUE of anaerobic metabolism?

A) It occurs only in pathological conditions.
B) It occurs only during very strenuous exercise.
C) It is a normal part of cellular metabolism.
D) It occurs only in the presence of oxygen.

Question 21

What is the primary constituent of plasma?

A) Clotting factors
B) Water
C) Proteins
D) Electrolytes

Question 22

Blood pressure is represented by:

A) cardiac output multiplied by peripheral vascular resistance.
B) the difference between preload and afterload.
C) stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.
D) the difference between cardiac contractile force and peripheral vascular resistance.

Question 23

The activation of several body systems' baroreceptors to reestablish a normal blood pressure is a process known as:

A) compensation.
B) positive feedback.
C) inflammatory.
D) pathological.

Question 24

Which one of the following is most likely to result in hypovolemic shock?

A) Acute spinal cord injury
B) Gunshot wound to the hand
C) Left ventricular failure
D) Penetrating trauma to the abdomen

Question 25

When cells are moderately differentiated with some structural similarity to the tissue of origin and the prognosis is fair, this is what grade of cancer cell?

A) 2
B) X
C) 1
D) 3

Question 26

Oncotic force is related to the amount of ________ in a solution.

A) electrolytes
B) water
C) anions
D) protein

Question 27

T lymphocytes are primarily responsible for:

A) directly attacking antigens.
B) producing antibodies.
C) neutralizing antigens.
D) producing antigens.

Question 28

As blood volume is lost due to a traumatic injury, the body's response is to:

A) decrease heart rate and vasoconstrict major veins.
B) increase heart rate and decrease systemic vascular resistance.
C) decrease heart rate and promote peripheral vasoconstriction.
D) increase heart rate and close precapillary arterioles.

Question 29

On average, the human body weight is about ________ percent water.

A) 50
B) 70
C) 60
D) 80

Question 30

Which of the following best describes an antibody?

A) A toxin released when cells die
B) A cell that engulfs and destroys invading pathogens
C) A substance secreted by apocrine glands
D) A substance produced by B lymphocytes that binds with an antigen

Question 31

Which of the following processes is used when glucose enters a body cell?

A) Diffusion
B) Facilitated diffusion
C) Active transport
D) Hydrostatic pressure

Question 32

Pulmonary edema is characteristic of which of the following types of shock?

A) Hypovolemic
B) Septic
C) Cardiogenic
D) Neurogenic

Question 33

Which of the following impairs cellular metabolism in shock?

A) Impaired use of both oxygen and glucose
B) Impaired use of oxygen only
C) Impaired use of glucose only
D) Impaired use of metabolic substrates and glucose

Question 34

How many molecules of ATP are produced from glycolysis?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

Question 35

Hemolytic disease of the newborn is most likely when an Rh ________ mother has previously given birth to an Rh ________ infant and is now pregnant with an Rh ________ fetus.

A) negative; positive; positive
B) positive; negative; positive
C) negative; positive; negative
D) positive; negative; negative

Question 36

What is the name of the level of structural organization that consists of groups of tissues working together?

A) Organ
B) Organism
C) Organ system
D) Organelle

Question 37

Which of the following is considered the body's "first line of defense" when preventing infection and injury?

A) Chemotactic reactions
B) Anatomic barriers
C) Immune response
D) Inflammatory response

Question 38

Adequate perfusion depends on:

A) the presence of oxygen in the blood.
B) adequate production of carbon dioxide.
C) adequate blood pressure.
D) intact pump, intact container and fluid.

Question 39

Which of the following is TRUE of leukotrienes?

A) They are released by B lymphocytes.
B) They inhibit vascular permeability.
C) They promote faster effects than histamines.
D) They are known as SRS-As.

Question 40

The term pH is a measure of:

A) hydrogen ion concentration.
B) sodium bicarbonate concentration.
C) carbonic acid concentration.
D) sodium hydroxide concentration.

Question 41

Which of the following is a response to histamine release?

A) Release of leukotrienes
B) Increase in blood flow at the site of injury
C) Decrease in vascular wall permeability
D) Suppression of lysosomal enzymes

Question 42

Treatment of immune deficiencies through the use of replacement therapies includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) gene therapy.
B) transplantation.
C) psychoneuroimmunologic regulation.
D) gamma globulin therapy.

Question 43

A patient is given antibody therapy in the hospital to prevent infection after exposure to a communicable disease. This is an example of ________ immunity.

A) passive natural
B) active natural
C) passive acquired
D) active acquired

Question 44

Which of the following adaptive mechanisms for cellular injury is LEAST likely to result in the proliferation of malignant cells?

A) Atrophy
B) Dysplasia
C) Metaplasia
D) Hyperplasia

Question 45

Which of the following conditions may result in edema?

A) Inhibition of ADH (vasopressin)
B) Decreased hydrostatic pressure
C) Loss of plasma proteins
D) Administration of a hypertonic solution

Question 46

The abnormal or disordered growth of a cell from rapid preproduction is known as:

A) mitosis.
B) dysplasia.
C) adaptation.
D) dysphasia.

Question 47

A solution having a comparatively higher concentration of solutes is said to be:

A) hypertonic.
B) osmotic.
C) isotonic.
D) hypotonic.

Question 48

Which of the following is a hypertonic solution?

A) 0.9 percent sodium chloride
B) 0.45 percent sodium chloride
C) 1.8 percent sodium chloride
D) 0.2 percent sodium chloride

Question 49

Hypoperfusion can result in:

A) acidosis.
B) hyperoxia.
C) hypocarbia.
D) alkalosis.

Question 50

Your patient is presenting with rapid-onset hypotension, tachycardia, and absent radial pulses. Which type of shock is LEAST likely to be the cause?

A) Septic
B) Cardiogenic
C) Hypovolemic
D) Neurogenic

Question 51

Two solutions are separated by a membrane that is more permeable to water than to sodium. Solution A contains 250 mEq/mL of sodium, and Solution B contains 125 mEq/mL of sodium. Given this, which of the following is TRUE?

A) Active transport is required to move sodium ions from Solution A to Solution B.
B) Water will move from Solution A to Solution B.
C) Water will move from Solution B to Solution A.
D) Sodium ions will diffuse from Solution A to Solution B.

Question 52

The tissue that lines many internal and external body surfaces is known as ________ tissue.

A) fibrous
B) connective
C) parietal
D) epithelial

Question 53

What type of epithelial tissue is found in the ureters and urinary bladder?

A) Glandular
B) Transitional
C) Stratified squamous
D) Pseudostratified

Question 54

Which of the following terms can be defined as the activities of the body that allow the maintenance of physiologic stability?

A) Sympathetic tone
B) Homeostasis
C) Inflammation
D) General adaptation syndrome

Question 55

The enzymes necessary for DNA replication are in the ________ of the cell.

A) cytoplasmic membrane
B) Golgi apparatus
C) lysosomes
D) nucleus

Question 56

The chemical mediators that are released when mast cells degranulate primarily cause:

A) enhanced cardiac contractility.
B) vasodilation.
C) depressed pumping action of the heart.
D) vasoconstriction.

Question 57

You are presented with a patient displaying urticaria, dyspnea, hypotension, nausea, vomiting, and dizziness. This patient is MOST likely suffering from:

A) anaphylaxis.
B) hypovolemia.
C) sepsis.
D) cardiogenic failure.

Question 58

The most abundant cation in extracellular fluid is:

A) magnesium.
B) sodium.
C) calcium.
D) potassium.

Question 59

Which of the following mechanisms buffers the acidity of the blood the fastest?

A) Increased hydrogen ion elimination in the urine
B) Protein buffering system
C) The carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system
D) Increased respiratory rate

Question 60

A positively charged atom or group of atoms is known as a(n):

A) electron.
B) neutron.
C) cation.
D) anion.

Question 61

What is a predisposing factor to the development of disease within the human body?

A) Lifestyle
B) Bacteria
C) Immunity
D) Biology

Question 62

When a foreign substance invades the body, the inflammatory response develops ________ compared to the immune response.

A) more quickly
B) more specifically
C) for a longer time
D) with fewer cell types

Question 63

Which of the following is defined as the percentage of blood volume occupied by erythrocytes?

A) Differential
B) Hemoglobin
C) Hematocrit
D) Complete blood count (CBC)

Question 64

Which of the following events does NOT occur during an inflammation response?

A) Development of humoral immunity
B) Promotion of healing
C) Removal of unwanted substances
D) Walling off of the infected and inflamed area

Question 65

Allergy, autoimmunity, and isoimmunity are types of:

A) hypersensitivity.
B) insensitivity.
C) polysensitivity.
D) hyposensitivity.

Question 66

Which of the following best describes the body's reaction to exposure to or invasion by antigens?

A) Anaphylaxis
B) Adaptation
C) Immune response
D) Tachyphylaxis

Question 67

Patients who suffer graft rejections and contact allergic reactions are experiencing which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A) Type II
B) Type IV
C) Type III
D) Type I

Question 68

The amount of blood that returns to the heart during diastole is called:

A) cardiac output.
B) preload.
C) myocardial capacity.
D) afterload.

Question 69

Shock can best be described as:

A) hypotension.
B) a decrease in myocardial contractility.
C) decreased cardiac output.
D) a state of inadequate tissue perfusion.

Question 70

Septic shock is precipitated by:

A) poisoning.
B) exposure to an antigen.
C) multiple organ dysfunction syndrome.
D) an overwhelming infection.

Question 71

Substances that separate into electrically charged particles in water are known as:

A) electrolytes.
B) elements.
C) anions.
D) molecules.

Question 72

An excessive absorption and accumulation of iron in the body, causing weight loss, joint pain, abdominal pain, palpitations and testicular atrophy in males is:

A) splenomegaly.
B) cholecystitis.
C) hemophilia.
D) hemochromatosis.

Question 73

________ are the most common type of cell in the blood.

A) Thrombocytes
B) Erythrocytes
C) Stem cells
D) Leukocytes

Question 74

One of the body's anatomical barriers to infection and injury is/are:

A) epithelium.
B) endoplasmic reticulum.
C) cytotoxic factors.
D) phagocytes.

Question 75

Which of the following is NOT consistent with an IgE mediated response to antigens?

A) Flushed, itching skin
B) Increased heart rate
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Profound vasoconstriction

Question 76

Normal saline solution contains ________ percent sodium chloride.

A) 90
B) 0.09
C) 0.9
D) 9.0

Question 77

The general term for creating, storing, and using energy in the body is:

A) homeostasis.
B) metabolism.
C) anabolism.
D) catabolism.

Question 78

Elevations in brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) in the blood have become the "marker" for which of the following conditions?

A) Liver failure
B) Brain cancer
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Pancreatitis

Question 79

Which of the following is NOT a function of exudate?

A) To destroy the infected host cell
B) To dilute toxins released by bacteria and the toxic products of dying cells
C) To bring plasma proteins and leukocytes to the site to attack the invaders
D) To carry away the products of inflammation

Question 80

The process that produces an increase in cell size as a result of increasing workload is known as:

A) hyperplasia.
B) hypertrophy.
C) metaplasia.
D) atrophy.