Deck 7: General Pathology

Question 1

The white blood cell that emigrates to injured tissue and converts to a macrophage is the:

A)Neutrophil
B)Mast cell
C)Lymphocyte
D)Monocyte

Answer 1

Monocyte

Question 2

Phagocytosis is greatly enhanced by:

A)Plasma lectins
B)Complement proteins
C)Opsonins
D)All of the above

Answer 2

All of the above

Question 3

The formation of new blood vessels in wound healing is:

A)Angiogenesis
B)Granulomatous tissue
C)Granulation tissue
D)Parenchymal cells

Answer 3

Angiogenesis

Question 4

Which complement protein enhances phagocytosis by acting as opsonin?

A)C3a
B)C3b
C)C4a
D)C5a

Question 5

During the inflammatory response, neutrophils are replaced by monocytes in:

A)2 to 12 hours
B)6 to 12 hours
C)12 to 24 hours
D)24 to 48 hours

Question 6

The inflammatory response consists of a vascular reaction and a cellular reaction. These reactions are mediated by chemical factors derived from plasma proteins or cells.

A)Both statements are true
B)Both statements are false
C)The first statement is true, and the second statement is false
D)The first statement is false, and the second statement is true

Question 7

All of the following white blood cells are involved in the immune response EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A)Macrophage
B)Neutrophil
C)Lymphocyte
D)Eosinophil

Question 8

Sepsis occurs in severe bacterial infections because large quantities of cytokines cause thrombosis and coagulation, which eventually lead to multiple organ failure.

A)Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
B)Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
C)The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct
D)The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
E)NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

Question 9

Acute inflammation is characterized by rapid onset and short duration. It is manifested by the presence of lymphocytes and macrophages, blood vessels, and fibrosis.

A)Both statements are true
B)Both statements are false
C)The first statement is true, and the second statement is false
D)The first statement is false, and the second statement is true

Question 10

During which phase of phagocytosis does the pH drop?

A)Engulfment
B)Killing and degradation
C)Release of leukocyte products
D)Apoptosis

Question 11

In an inflammatory reaction, with infection, the white blood cell count can increase to:

A)4,000 to 10,000/mm3
B)10,000 to 15,000/mm3
C)15,000 to 20,000/mm3
D)20,000 to 25,000/mm3

Question 12

Outcomes of acute inflammation consist of:

A)Complete resolution
B)Healing by connective tissue replacement
C)Progression of tissue response to chronic inflammation
D)All of the above

Question 13

Examples of acute phase proteins include:

A)C-reactive protein and fibrinogen
B)Serum amyloid A and lipoxin
C)Substance P and neurokinin A
D)Hageman factor and fibrinogen

Question 14

Heat (calor) found during the inflammatory response is caused by:

A)Vasoconstriction of blood vessels
B)Exudation of fluid
C)Increased blood flow
D)Stretching of pain receptors

Question 15

Two major cytokines that induce the systemic acute phase responses of infection and injury, including fever, loss of appetite and release of corticosteroids are:

A)Histamine and serotonin
B)Complement and bradykinin
C)Tumor necrosis factor and interleukin-1
D)Prostaglandins and leukotrienes

Question 16

A host response to injury that consists of vascular responses, activation of white blood cells, and systemic reactions refers to:

A)Inflammation
B)Regeneration
C)Autoimmune response
D)Angiogenesis

Question 17

Which chemical mediator is important in the pathogenesis of bronchial asthma?

A)Lipoxins
B)Leukotrienes
C)Prostaglandins
D)Nitric oxide

Question 18

Chemical mediators bind to specific receptor on target cells. Most are short lived, and harmless.

A)Both statements are true
B)Both statements are false
C)The first statement is true, and the second statement is false
D)The first statement is false, and the second statement is true

Question 19

Which chemical mediator produces prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and lipoxins?

A)Arachidonic acid
B)Bradykinin
C)Complement
D)Serotonin

Question 20

Examples of systemic diseases affected by chronic inflammation include:

A)Cardiovascular disease and diabetes
B)Cancer and asthma
C)Alzheimer's disease and periodontal disease
D)All of the above

Question 21

A complication of wound healing commonly seen in serious burn injuries is:

A)Ulceration
B)Hypertrophic scar
C)Contracture
D)Fibrosis

Question 22

The process of a stem cell from one adult tissue generating to cell types of another tissue is known as:

A)Unipotent
B)Transdifferentiation
C)Undifferentiation
D)Biologic viability

Question 23

Granulation tissue represents a hallmark of healing. The amount of granulation tissue that forms depends on the size of the wound and the intensity of the inflammation.

A)Both statements are TRUE
B)Both statements are FALSE
C)The first statement is TRUE, and the second statement is FALSE
D)The first statement is FALSE, and the second statement is TRUE

Question 24

The adult stem cells that develop from material created during the development of the nervous system and can differentiate into neural cell lines are:

A)Amniotic fluid stem cells
B)Adipose-derived stem cells
C)Bone marrow-derived stem cells
D)Dental stem cells

Question 25

The adult stem cells that are isolated from aspirates of liposuction are:

A)Amniotic fluid stem cells
B)Adipose-derived stem cells
C)Bone marrow-derived stem cells
D)Dental stem cells

Question 26

Which of the following are the most commercially available stem cells?

A)Amniotic fluid-derived stem cells
B)Bone marrow-derived stem cells
C)Tooth-derived stem cells
D)Adipose-derived stem cells

Question 27

Dental stem cells can be obtained from:

A)Permanent third molars (wisdom teeth)
B)Pulp of primary teeth
C)Periodontal ligament
D)All of the above

Question 28

Stem cells that can differentiate into pancreatic islet beta-cells include:

A)Bone marrow-derived and tooth-derived stem cells
B)Amniotic fluid-derived and tooth-derived stem cells
C)Umbilical cord and bone marrow-derived stem cells
D)Amniotic fluid-derived and umbilical cord stem cells

Question 29

In approximately what percentage of human DNA is the uniqueness of humans encoded?

A)0.1%
B)0.5%
C)1%
D)5% percent

Question 30

The two main categories of stem cells are:

A)Embryonic and pluripotent stem cells
B)Primary and secondary stem cells
C)Embryonic and adult stem cells
D)Somatic and adult stem cells

Question 31

A complication of wound healing commonly seen in lower extremity wounds with peripheral vascular disease is:

A)Ulceration
B)Hypertrophic scar
C)Contracture
D)Fibrosis

Question 32

All of the following stem cells may differentiate into fat cells EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A)Amniotic fluid-derived stem cells
B)Adipose-derived stem cells
C)Tooth-derived stem cells
D)Umbilical cord stem cells

Question 33

The inflammatory reaction is more intense with healing by secondary union because of the presence of a larger clot and the formation of more epidermis in the area.

A)Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
B)Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
C)The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct
D)The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
E)NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

Question 34

The adult stem cells which are isolated from hematopoietic stem cells and stromal cells are:

A)Amniotic fluid stem cells
B)Adipose-derived stem cells
C)Bone marrow-derived stem cells
D)Dental stem cells

Question 35

Local factors that influence wound healing include all the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A)Size and location of wound
B)Early movement
C)Blood supply
D)Infection

Question 36

Which of the following stem cells may differentiate into immune cells?

A)Amniotic fluid-derived stem cells
B)Adipose-derived stem cells
C)Tooth-derived stem cells
D)Umbilical cord stem cells

Question 37

A wound with a narrow incisional space will heal by:

A)Primary intervention
B)Primary intention
C)Secondary intervention
D)Secondary intention

Question 38

Allogenous stem cells are derived from the individual being treated. They may be multipotent or unipotent.

A)Both statements are TRUE
B)Both statements are FALSE
C)The first statement is TRUE, and the second statement is FALSE
D)The first statement is FALSE, and the second statement is TRUE

Question 39

Tissues recover approximately 70% of tensile strength over:

A)1 to 3 weeks
B)4 to 6 weeks
C)7 to 11 weeks
D)12 to 15 weeks

Question 40

How many genes do humans have?

A)20,000 to 25,000
B)25,000 to 30,000
C)30,000 to 35,000
D)35,000 to 40,000

Question 41

Determining which of two or more diseases with similar signs and symptoms is the one the client is manifesting refers to:

A)Appearance diagnosis
B)Differential diagnosis
C)Definitive diagnosis
D)Working diagnosis

Question 42

With autosomal dominant disorders, when some persons inherit the mutant gene but are phenotypically normal, this refers to:

A)Variable expressivity
B)Successive transmission
C)Incomplete penetrance
D)Autosomal inheritance

Question 43

Ribonucleic acid (RNA) analysis is not as stable as deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)-based diagnosis. It cannot, as yet, be used to detect and quantify viruses such as human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or hepatitis C virus.

A)Both statements are TRUE
B)Both statements are FALSE
C)The first statement is TRUE, and the second statement is FALSE
D)The first statement is FALSE, and the second statement is TRUE

Question 44

If all diseases except one are eliminated from the differential diagnosis, then that gives the:

A)Appearance diagnosis
B)Preliminary diagnosis
C)Definitive diagnosis
D)Working diagnosis

Question 45

A client presents with an ulceration with a pattern of healing followed by recurrence. Which conceptual stage of the differential diagnosis process does this represent?

A)Stage 1-classification of the abnormality by primary manifestation
B)Stage 2-listing of secondary features and contributing factors
C)Stage 3-listing of conditions capable of causing primary manifestations
D)Stage 4-elimination of unlikely causes

Question 46

Sickle cell anemia exemplifies:

A)Autosomal dominant inheritance
B)Autosomal recessive inheritance
C)X-linked recessive inheritance
D)Multifactorial inheritance

Question 47

All of the following conditions have a genetic component EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A)Cardiovascular disease
B)Diabetes
C)Cleft lip
D)Trauma

Question 48

A client presents with an enlargement of soft tissue. Which conceptual stage of the differential diagnosis process does this represent?

A)Stage 1-classification of the abnormality by primary manifestation
B)Stage 2-listing of secondary features and contributing factors
C)Stage 3-listing of conditions capable of causing primary manifestations
D)Stage 4-elimination of unlikely causes

Question 49

Duchenne muscular dystrophy exemplifies:

A)Autosomal dominant inheritance
B)Autosomal recessive inheritance
C)X-linked recessive inheritance
D)Multifactorial inheritance

Question 50

Trisomy is an example of:

A)Genome mutation
B)Chromosome mutation
C)Submicroscopic chromosome mutation
D)Submicroscopic gene mutation