Deck 5: Consulting With Criminal Courts
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Deck 5: Consulting With Criminal Courts
1
Which standard of proof is required in all criminal proceedings?
A) beyond a reasonable doubt
B) the Daubert standard
C) preponderance of the evidence
D) clear and convincing evidence
A) beyond a reasonable doubt
B) the Daubert standard
C) preponderance of the evidence
D) clear and convincing evidence
A
2
Research suggests that insanity cases are often decided on ______ grounds.
A) legal
B) moral
C) psychiatric
D) sacred
A) legal
B) moral
C) psychiatric
D) sacred
B
3
Research has shown that defendants who plead not guilty by reason of insanity comprise ______ of criminal cases.
A) 1-3%
B) 5-7%
C) 13-15%
D) 23-25%
A) 1-3%
B) 5-7%
C) 13-15%
D) 23-25%
A
4
Which statement is true about the insanity defense?
A) It is allowed in all 50 states.
B) It is allowed in a majority of states.
C) It is allowed in two states.
D) It is not allowed in the United States.
A) It is allowed in all 50 states.
B) It is allowed in a majority of states.
C) It is allowed in two states.
D) It is not allowed in the United States.
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5
Some states allow judge and jurors an alternative to NGRI. This middle ground verdict is called ______.
A) innocent but culpable
B) guilty but mentally ill
C) guilty but insane
D) innocent but unstable
A) innocent but culpable
B) guilty but mentally ill
C) guilty but insane
D) innocent but unstable
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6
The R-CRAS is a forensic instrument used for assessing ______.
A) adjudicative competence
B) criminal responsibility
C) cognitive functioning
D) competence to plead guilty
A) adjudicative competence
B) criminal responsibility
C) cognitive functioning
D) competence to plead guilty
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7
Who gets the report when a defense attorney requests a competency evaluation for his or her client?
A) the defense attorney
B) the judge
C) the prosecutor
D) all parties
A) the defense attorney
B) the judge
C) the prosecutor
D) all parties
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8
The law states that an individual found NGRI cannot be held solely based on dangerousness if there is no longer evidence of mental illness. Which group is the exception?
A) serial killers
B) sexually violent predators
C) law enforcement personnel
D) juvenile delinquents
A) serial killers
B) sexually violent predators
C) law enforcement personnel
D) juvenile delinquents
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9
What is the most frequent outcome for those found NGRI?
A) The defendant is sent home under house arrest.
B) The defendant is hospitalized.
C) The defendant is sent home with case management services.
D) The defendant is set free.
A) The defendant is sent home under house arrest.
B) The defendant is hospitalized.
C) The defendant is sent home with case management services.
D) The defendant is set free.
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10
Sanity refers to mental state ______, whereas competency refers to mental state ______.
A) at sentencing; during pretrial
B) at the time of criminal justice proceedings; at the time of crime
C) at the time of crime; at the time of criminal justice proceedings
D) during the evaluation; during the trial
A) at sentencing; during pretrial
B) at the time of criminal justice proceedings; at the time of crime
C) at the time of crime; at the time of criminal justice proceedings
D) during the evaluation; during the trial
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11
Which disorder is the predominant diagnosis of individuals found incompetent to stand trial?
A) narcolepsy
B) schizophrenia
C) depression
D) psychopathy
A) narcolepsy
B) schizophrenia
C) depression
D) psychopathy
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12
Which term is synonymous with sanity evaluation?
A) competency assessment
B) criminal responsibility evaluation
C) risk assessment
D) forensic amenability evaluation
A) competency assessment
B) criminal responsibility evaluation
C) risk assessment
D) forensic amenability evaluation
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13
In Godinez v. Moran (1993), the Supreme Court ruled that the Dusky standards also apply to ______.
A) guilty pleas
B) pre-arraignment proceedings
C) waivers
D) parole hearings
A) guilty pleas
B) pre-arraignment proceedings
C) waivers
D) parole hearings
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14
Which high-profile defendant suffered from a paranoid personality disorder, was competent to stand trial, and had a trial considered an embarrassment to the justice system?
A) Stephen Raucci
B) Ted Bundy
C) O.J. Simpson
D) Colin Ferguson
A) Stephen Raucci
B) Ted Bundy
C) O.J. Simpson
D) Colin Ferguson
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15
The chapter focuses on which three areas of forensic assessment?
A) competency to stand trial, competency to waive one's rights, and competency to serve as one's own lawyer
B) psychiatry, psychology, and social work
C) competency, insanity, and sentencing
D) restoration, restitution, and reestablishment
A) competency to stand trial, competency to waive one's rights, and competency to serve as one's own lawyer
B) psychiatry, psychology, and social work
C) competency, insanity, and sentencing
D) restoration, restitution, and reestablishment
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16
Competency to stand trial and competency to plea bargain are examples of ______ competencies.
A) institutional
B) dual-purpose
C) sanity
D) adjudicative
A) institutional
B) dual-purpose
C) sanity
D) adjudicative
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17
The most common method of restoring competence in defendants is ______.
A) a combination of medication and therapy
B) community-based treatment
C) a combination of electroconvulsive therapy and antidepressants
D) involuntary civil commitment for at least 6 months
A) a combination of medication and therapy
B) community-based treatment
C) a combination of electroconvulsive therapy and antidepressants
D) involuntary civil commitment for at least 6 months
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18
The two-pronged Dusky standard specifies that a defendant must not only understand what is happening but also be ______.
A) agreeable to waiving his or her rights
B) represented by a competent attorney
C) able to assist in his or her own defense
D) undergoing restorative treatment
A) agreeable to waiving his or her rights
B) represented by a competent attorney
C) able to assist in his or her own defense
D) undergoing restorative treatment
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19
According to the text, outpatient ______ is more common than outpatient ______.
A) evaluation; treatment
B) therapy; medication
C) hospitalization; sentencing
D) referrals; assessments
A) evaluation; treatment
B) therapy; medication
C) hospitalization; sentencing
D) referrals; assessments
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20
Restoration to competency for an individual found incompetent to stand trial should focus not only on decisional capacities but also on ______.
A) improving one's physical health
B) education about the legal system
C) medication compliance
D) family support
A) improving one's physical health
B) education about the legal system
C) medication compliance
D) family support
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21
Civil commitment of sexually violent predators requires evidence of mental ______.
A) disorder
B) abnormality
C) disability
D) disease
A) disorder
B) abnormality
C) disability
D) disease
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22
In regard to risk assessment, both the ethical code of the APA and the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology state that psychologists should ______.
A) not use risk assessment instruments to evaluate sex offenders
B) use only validated risk assessment instruments to evaluate sex offenders
C) not participate in death penalty sentencing of sex offenders
D) use only clinical data when communicating their findings
A) not use risk assessment instruments to evaluate sex offenders
B) use only validated risk assessment instruments to evaluate sex offenders
C) not participate in death penalty sentencing of sex offenders
D) use only clinical data when communicating their findings
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23
Which Supreme Court ruling is an example of a sexually violent predator statute?
A) Kansas v. Hendricks
B) Loving v. Virginia
C) Mapp v. Ohio
D) Betts v. Brady
A) Kansas v. Hendricks
B) Loving v. Virginia
C) Mapp v. Ohio
D) Betts v. Brady
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24
Which federal law sets the standard for determining insanity in federal courts?
A) the IDRA
B) the Durham Rule
C) the EEDIA
D) the Dusky Rule
A) the IDRA
B) the Durham Rule
C) the EEDIA
D) the Dusky Rule
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25
Imagine you are a psychologist who is conducting a psychosexual assessment on a convicted sex offender. Which of the following should you refrain from including in your report to the court?
A) a sadistic rapist classification
B) results of a validated risk assessment
C) treatment recommendations
D) background information on the offender
A) a sadistic rapist classification
B) results of a validated risk assessment
C) treatment recommendations
D) background information on the offender
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26
Which type of sentencing attempts to make the punishment fit the crime?
A) dominant
B) determinant
C) intermittent
D) indeterminate
A) dominant
B) determinant
C) intermittent
D) indeterminate
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27
Death penalty mitigation refers to ______.
A) absolving one of guilt
B) rendering a crime heinous
C) ensuring a defendant receives the death penalty
D) reducing one's sentence in order to avoid the death penalty
A) absolving one of guilt
B) rendering a crime heinous
C) ensuring a defendant receives the death penalty
D) reducing one's sentence in order to avoid the death penalty
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28
Which of the following describes a concern with sex offender typologies?
A) They are not useful in clinical practice.
B) They are often too broad to be useful.
C) They have not received empirical support.
D) They are used primarily by psychiatrists.
A) They are not useful in clinical practice.
B) They are often too broad to be useful.
C) They have not received empirical support.
D) They are used primarily by psychiatrists.
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29
In the typical criminal case where competency is in question, ______.
A) at least three competency evaluations are performed
B) at least two evaluations are conducted by different clinicians
C) the judge agrees with the recommendation made by the clinician
D) the offender is released while the assessment is being conducted
A) at least three competency evaluations are performed
B) at least two evaluations are conducted by different clinicians
C) the judge agrees with the recommendation made by the clinician
D) the offender is released while the assessment is being conducted
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30
Which statement is true about civil commitment of sexually violent predators?
A) It is allowed in every state but not the federal government.
B) It is a strategy that is supported by most psychologists.
C) It is a valid treatment option available in all states.
D) It is increasing in numbers across the United States.
A) It is allowed in every state but not the federal government.
B) It is a strategy that is supported by most psychologists.
C) It is a valid treatment option available in all states.
D) It is increasing in numbers across the United States.
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31
Reports of competency evaluations should include all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A) the purpose of the evaluation
B) details about the crime itself
C) background information about the defendant
D) scores on psychological measures
A) the purpose of the evaluation
B) details about the crime itself
C) background information about the defendant
D) scores on psychological measures
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32
What is the primary concern with the GBMI verdict?
A) It does not guarantee treatment for the mentally ill individual.
B) It absolves a defendant of criminal responsibility.
C) It helps the defendant avoid a prison term.
D) It requires expensive modifications to the court system.
A) It does not guarantee treatment for the mentally ill individual.
B) It absolves a defendant of criminal responsibility.
C) It helps the defendant avoid a prison term.
D) It requires expensive modifications to the court system.
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33
Which individual would be eligible for the death penalty?
A) a juvenile sex offender who is under age 18
B) a 36-year-old female who is intellectually disabled
C) a female business owner who stabs her husband to death
D) a male serial rapist whose victims are all alive
A) a juvenile sex offender who is under age 18
B) a 36-year-old female who is intellectually disabled
C) a female business owner who stabs her husband to death
D) a male serial rapist whose victims are all alive
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34
The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that the standard for determining competency to stand trial applies to all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A) pretrial proceedings
B) proceedings before a person was indicted
C) habeas corpus proceedings
D) competency to plead guilty
A) pretrial proceedings
B) proceedings before a person was indicted
C) habeas corpus proceedings
D) competency to plead guilty
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35
Historically, criminal sentencing was based on the ______ model of corrections.
A) punitive
B) progressive
C) reactive
D) rehabilitative
A) punitive
B) progressive
C) reactive
D) rehabilitative
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36
Which of the following is least likely to be considered a mitigating factor at the sentencing stage in a death penalty case?
A) evidence of PTSD
B) age of the offender
C) gender of the offender
D) history of abuse by parents
A) evidence of PTSD
B) age of the offender
C) gender of the offender
D) history of abuse by parents
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37
All of the following are laws designed to address the problems associated with sex offending EXCEPT ______.
A) the Adam Walsh Child Protection and Safety Act
B) Megan's Law
C) Amber Alert
D) the Gonzaga Law
A) the Adam Walsh Child Protection and Safety Act
B) Megan's Law
C) Amber Alert
D) the Gonzaga Law
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38
When assessing risk in sexually violent predators, it is important for clinicians to be aware that ______.
A) the majority of SVPs are also substance abusers
B) the majority of SVPs have been falsely accused
C) comorbid mental disorders are rare in this population
D) treatment may not be provided once the individual is civilly committed
A) the majority of SVPs are also substance abusers
B) the majority of SVPs have been falsely accused
C) comorbid mental disorders are rare in this population
D) treatment may not be provided once the individual is civilly committed
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39
Forensic psychologists are generally advised not to include ______ in their competency reports.
A) the defendant's age
B) suggestions for restoring competency
C) diagnoses
D) results of assessment instruments
A) the defendant's age
B) suggestions for restoring competency
C) diagnoses
D) results of assessment instruments
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40
Which U.S. Supreme Court case dealt with the forced medication of incompetent defendants?
A) Loughner v. U.S.
B) Sell v. U.S.
C) Colorado v. Connelly
D) Arizona v. Dusky
A) Loughner v. U.S.
B) Sell v. U.S.
C) Colorado v. Connelly
D) Arizona v. Dusky
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41
Which of the following is a commonality among all insanity standards?
A) a documented mental disorder
B) the ability to understand right and wrong
C) the presence of a guilty mind
D) a capacity to follow the law
A) a documented mental disorder
B) the ability to understand right and wrong
C) the presence of a guilty mind
D) a capacity to follow the law
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42
Research suggests that the inclusion of a clinically diagnosed mental disorder is a strong predictor of a finding of incompetence.
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43
Most clinicians regard the evaluation of criminal responsibility as a complex issue.
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44
Research indicates that ______ are more sympathetic to the insanity defense than are ______.
A) psychologists; psychiatrists
B) psychiatrists; psychologists
C) judges; juries
D) juries; judges
A) psychologists; psychiatrists
B) psychiatrists; psychologists
C) judges; juries
D) juries; judges
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45
Research has found that many sex offenders do not suffer from a mental disorder.
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46
A 17-year-old offender is not eligible for the death penalty.
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47
Persons who are conditionally released are less likely than convicted offenders to commit new crimes.
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48
Rehabilitation is the dominant concern in determinate sentencing.
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49
Which of the following illustrates a misconception that jurors have about the insanity defense?
A) the belief that medication does not effectively treat mental illness
B) the belief that all assessment instruments have been validated through a series of empirical studies
C) the belief that defendants found NGRI go free
D) the belief that defendants have no remorse for their crimes
A) the belief that medication does not effectively treat mental illness
B) the belief that all assessment instruments have been validated through a series of empirical studies
C) the belief that defendants found NGRI go free
D) the belief that defendants have no remorse for their crimes
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50
Evaluations in which a clinician evaluates a defendant's competency to stand trial and criminal responsibility at the same time are called ______.
A) insanity standards
B) dual-purpose evaluations
C) criminal responsibility screenings
D) product tests
A) insanity standards
B) dual-purpose evaluations
C) criminal responsibility screenings
D) product tests
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51
Restoration to competency must be done in an institution.
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52
In which year was the death penalty reinstituted in the United States?
A) 1976
B) 1987
C) 1994
D) 2001
A) 1976
B) 1987
C) 1994
D) 2001
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53
Changes in the federal and state laws have made it more difficult for defendants pleading not guilty by reason of insanity to win acquittal.
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54
The U.S. Constitution requires judges to consider mitigating factors in capital cases.
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55
Once a defendant is medicated and rendered competent to stand trial, medication during the trial is often unnecessary.
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56
Most types of forensic mental health assessments require an appraisal of malingering.
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57
Most modern psychoactive medications have few side effects.
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58
In United States v. Comstock, 2010, the Supreme Court ruled that the federal government could not hold violent sexual offenders beyond their prison sentence if they were mentally ill.
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59
A diagnosis of psychopathy is considered a mitigating factor in capital sentencing.
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60
Immigration deportation proceedings do not carry a right to legal representation.
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61
Why do you think some psychologists have moral objections to participating in a death penalty case?
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62
Compare and contrast restoration to competency in an outpatient and inpatient setting.
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63
Describe what is involved in a psychosexual assessment. Include the reasons why clinicians are discouraged from using a typology to label a sex offender in a written report.
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64
Explain SVPs and discuss concerns associated with them.
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65
List three reasons why competency evaluations are so common.
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66
Define malingering.
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67
Why is guilty but mentally ill a controversial verdict? What does this verdict often mean for defendants?
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68
What do Theodore Kaczynski and Colin Ferguson have in common? How does Indiana v. Edwards (2008) pertain to both men?
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69
Identify three insanity tests and identify the question each test asks.
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