Exam 9: Capital Market Theory and Asset Pricing Models

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If a stock has a beta greater than 1.0, it means:

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Select the incorrect statement regarding the CML. The CML:

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With the APT, risk is defined in terms of a stock's sensitivity to basic economic factors.

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If the risk-free lending rate is lower than the borrowing rate, what would the shape of the CML and efficient frontier look like?

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The arbitrage pricing theory (APT):

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Compare the capital market line and the security market line.

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Tests of the CAPM suggest the trade-off between expected return and risk is an upward-sloping straight line.

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Some securities are considered to be "defensive" in that they tend to hold their value or increase in value when the majority of securities are losing value, such as during a recession. What could one conclude about the betas of defensive securities?

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McDonald's has a below average beta.

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The SML can be used to analyze the relationship between risk and required return for:

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The slope of the CML is the:

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The characteristic line is the regression fitting total returns for a stock against total returns for the market and is sometimes calculated using excess returns.

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A security that plots above the SML would be a good security to sell short.

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The APT is based on the:

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The CML states that all investors should invest in the same portfolio of risky assets.

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Which of the following statements regarding investors and the CMT is true?

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How are securities chosen and in what proportions are they represented in the market portfolio M?

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The most volatile stocks have betas near zero.

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Like CAPM, APT does not assume a single-period investment horizon.

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Assume a risk-free rate of 5 percent and an expected market return of 15 percent. Now suppose that the SML shifts, changing slope, so that kRF is still 5 percent but kM is now 16 percent. What does this shift suggest about investors' risk aversion? If the slope were to change downward, what would that suggest?

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