Question 1

Which is an obstacle to peer review activities?

Accepted Answer

A)  Administrative feedback and input. 
B)  Fear of reprisals for candid criticism. 
C)  Participation by healthcare providers. 
D)  Resultant measures to improve care. 
A)  Administrative feedback and input. 
B)  Fear of reprisals for candid criticism. 
C)  Participation by healthcare providers. 
D)  Resultant measures to improve care.

Question 2

Which is characteristic of an incident report?

Accepted Answer

A)  Documents circumstances to assess for the possibility of impending litigation. 
B)  Guarantees that facility malpractice insurance premiums will be reasonable. 
C)  Provides a method of defense against liability for actions of facility employees. 
D)  Serves as a way to discipline the health care provider who perpetrated an error. 
A)  Documents circumstances to assess for the possibility of impending litigation. 
B)  Guarantees that facility malpractice insurance premiums will be reasonable. 
C)  Provides a method of defense against liability for actions of facility employees. 
D)  Serves as a way to discipline the health care provider who perpetrated an error.

Question 3

Peer Review Organizations (PROs) _____.

Accepted Answer

A)  determine the amount of reimbursement for facilities 
B)  enact policies relative to risk management processes 
C)  monitor the appropriateness and quality of outcomes 
D)  take disciplinary actions against providers for malpractice 
A)  determine the amount of reimbursement for facilities 
B)  enact policies relative to risk management processes 
C)  monitor the appropriateness and quality of outcomes 
D)  take disciplinary actions against providers for malpractice

Question 4

State legislatures have passed laws assigning a "privileged" status to peer review deliberations and review activities, an example of which includes _____.

Accepted Answer

A)  Case management records, which facilitate post-discharge care of the patient 
B)  Liability for libel and slander, which are implicit if documented in patient records 
C)  Minutes of a peer review committee, which are considered immune from discovery 
D)  Risk management files, which must be made accessible to patients and their families 
A)  Case management records, which facilitate post-discharge care of the patient 
B)  Liability for libel and slander, which are implicit if documented in patient records 
C)  Minutes of a peer review committee, which are considered immune from discovery 
D)  Risk management files, which must be made accessible to patients and their families

Question 5

Utilization review is described as a(n) _____.

Accepted Answer

A)  combination of activities aimed at loss prevention 
B)  legally unenforceable system that increases lawsuits 
C)  optional process to be implemented by healthcare facilities 
D)  required component of Joint Commission accreditation 
A)  combination of activities aimed at loss prevention 
B)  legally unenforceable system that increases lawsuits 
C)  optional process to be implemented by healthcare facilities 
D)  required component of Joint Commission accreditation

Question 6

Quality management is described as a _____.

Accepted Answer

A)  clinical function that seeks to define optimum performance 
B)  method of assessing individual patients at organizations 
C)  process of identifying sentinel and other events 
D)  way of increasing risk to a healthcare organization 
A)  clinical function that seeks to define optimum performance 
B)  method of assessing individual patients at organizations 
C)  process of identifying sentinel and other events 
D)  way of increasing risk to a healthcare organization

Question 7

Which is a legal consideration that applies to the retention of health care records?

Accepted Answer

A)  Available storage and methods of destruction. 
B)  Decision made by the health information committee. 
C)  Length of time required by statute and regulation. 
D)  Policy established by the health care institution. 
A)  Available storage and methods of destruction. 
B)  Decision made by the health information committee. 
C)  Length of time required by statute and regulation. 
D)  Policy established by the health care institution.

Question 8

An adverse incident is defined as a(n) _____.

Accepted Answer

A)  Event inconsistent with normal routine operations 
B)  Medication error identified through quality review 
C)  Unexpected event involving a visitor 
D)  Unintended effect of a research protocol 
A)  Event inconsistent with normal routine operations 
B)  Medication error identified through quality review 
C)  Unexpected event involving a visitor 
D)  Unintended effect of a research protocol

Question 9

Discovery occurs before trial and involves identifying and locating books, documents, or other tangible things and persons relating to the subject matter at issue.

Accepted Answer

A) True 
 B)False

Question 10

HIPAA requires a covered entity to perform a risk analysis and implement standards to protect the institution's health information records. Which is one of those standards?

Accepted Answer

A)  Definition of security measures that should be implemented and revised. 
B)  Documentation of the entity's actions, which are to be maintained for 6 years. 
C)  Specification of a step-by-step approach outlined in the HIPAA regulations. 
D)  Statutory requirements that health information professionals be credentialed. 
A)  Definition of security measures that should be implemented and revised. 
B)  Documentation of the entity's actions, which are to be maintained for 6 years. 
C)  Specification of a step-by-step approach outlined in the HIPAA regulations. 
D)  Statutory requirements that health information professionals be credentialed.

Question 11

Charitable immunity is the _____.

Accepted Answer

A)  ability for a nonprofit organization to avoid litigation for malpractice 
B)  implementation of Good Samaritan laws in all states in the country 
C)  shielding of health care institutions from liability for employee negligence 
D)  way a health care facility manages its quality management programs 
A)  ability for a nonprofit organization to avoid litigation for malpractice 
B)  implementation of Good Samaritan laws in all states in the country 
C)  shielding of health care institutions from liability for employee negligence 
D)  way a health care facility manages its quality management programs

Question 12

Attorney client privilege protects the communications made between attorneys and their clients from disclosure to third parties.

Accepted Answer

A) True 
 B)False

Question 13

If an incident report is inadvertently released during the discovery process along with the medical record, _____ applies.

Accepted Answer

A)  attorney work product privilege 
B)  Behringer Estate v. Medical Center at Princeton 
C)  business record exceptions 
D)  Federal Rule of Evidence 502 
A)  attorney work product privilege 
B)  Behringer Estate v. Medical Center at Princeton 
C)  business record exceptions 
D)  Federal Rule of Evidence 502

Question 14

Before an incident report is admitted into evidence, the document must _____.

Accepted Answer

A)  be reviewed by the plaintiff's attorney 
B)  comply with attorney work product privileges 
C)  overcome the application of privileges 
D)  produce desired results in a court of law 
A)  be reviewed by the plaintiff's attorney 
B)  comply with attorney work product privileges 
C)  overcome the application of privileges 
D)  produce desired results in a court of law

Question 15

The Joint Commission's role in sentinel events includes _____.

Accepted Answer

A)  Performing onsite reviews as the result of all sentinel events 
B)  The possibility of placing the organization on accreditation watch status 
C)  Requiring sentinel events to be reported within 45 days of an event 
D)  Withdrawing accreditation for reporting of sentinel events 
A)  Performing onsite reviews as the result of all sentinel events 
B)  The possibility of placing the organization on accreditation watch status 
C)  Requiring sentinel events to be reported within 45 days of an event 
D)  Withdrawing accreditation for reporting of sentinel events

Question 16

For which situation would an incident report be generated?

Accepted Answer

A)  Decrease in blood pressure following a surgical procedure. 
B)  Loss of a provider's parking spot to a hospital employee. 
C)  Routine repair and maintenance of medical equipment. 
D)  Visitor who slips and falls, but that results in no injury. 
A)  Decrease in blood pressure following a surgical procedure. 
B)  Loss of a provider's parking spot to a hospital employee. 
C)  Routine repair and maintenance of medical equipment. 
D)  Visitor who slips and falls, but that results in no injury.

Question 17

The Darling vs. Charleston Community Memorial Hospital case established the precedent that _____.

Accepted Answer

A)  Abolished the doctrine of charitable immunity 
B)  Hospitals are not liable for provider malpractice 
C)  Medicaid patients cannot file negligence lawsuits 
D)  Profit hospitals only are liable for employee negligence 
A)  Abolished the doctrine of charitable immunity 
B)  Hospitals are not liable for provider malpractice 
C)  Medicaid patients cannot file negligence lawsuits 
D)  Profit hospitals only are liable for employee negligence

Question 18

Which a nontechnical measure that might be employed to enhance security controls related to healthcare records access?

Accepted Answer

A)  Educating employees about how to properly handle information. 
B)  Installing firewalls on all computers in the healthcare facility. 
C)  Requiring employees to change their password every 90 days. 
D)  Utilizing effective data mining techniques to access information. 
A)  Educating employees about how to properly handle information. 
B)  Installing firewalls on all computers in the healthcare facility. 
C)  Requiring employees to change their password every 90 days. 
D)  Utilizing effective data mining techniques to access information.

Question 19

How does risk management differ from quality management?

Accepted Answer

A)  Quality management lessens effects of unavoidable risks. 
B)  Quality management processes are outcome oriented. 
C)  Risk management's primary focus is on improving clinical care. 
D)  Risk management identifies areas of operational and financial loss. 
A)  Quality management lessens effects of unavoidable risks. 
B)  Quality management processes are outcome oriented. 
C)  Risk management's primary focus is on improving clinical care. 
D)  Risk management identifies areas of operational and financial loss.

Question 20

Medicare's inpatient prospective payment system _____.

Accepted Answer

A)  Changed reimbursement per diem rates to predetermined rates 
B)  Defined APCs, APGs, DRGs, MS-DRGs, RBRVS, and RUGs 
C)  Established minimum reimbursement amounts for hospital stays 
D)  Provided payment to facilities in advance of inpatient admission 
A)  Changed reimbursement per diem rates to predetermined rates 
B)  Defined APCs, APGs, DRGs, MS-DRGs, RBRVS, and RUGs 
C)  Established minimum reimbursement amounts for hospital stays 
D)  Provided payment to facilities in advance of inpatient admission

Which is an obstacle to peer review activities?

Which is characteristic of an incident report?

Peer Review Organizations (PROs) _____.

State legislatures have passed laws assigning a "privileged" status to peer review deliberations and review activities, an example of which includes _____.

Utilization review is described as a(n) _____.

Quality management is described as a _____.

Which is a legal consideration that applies to the retention of health care records?

An adverse incident is defined as a(n) _____.

Discovery occurs before trial and involves identifying and locating books, documents, or other tangible things and persons relating to the subject matter at issue.

HIPAA requires a covered entity to perform a risk analysis and implement standards to protect the institution's health information records. Which is one of those standards?

Charitable immunity is the _____.

Attorney client privilege protects the communications made between attorneys and their clients from disclosure to third parties.

If an incident report is inadvertently released during the discovery process along with the medical record, _____ applies.

Before an incident report is admitted into evidence, the document must _____.

The Joint Commission's role in sentinel events includes _____.

For which situation would an incident report be generated?

The Darling vs. Charleston Community Memorial Hospital case established the precedent that _____.

Which a nontechnical measure that might be employed to enhance security controls related to healthcare records access?

How does risk management differ from quality management?

Medicare's inpatient prospective payment system _____.

Workings of the American Legal System

Court Systems and Legal Procedures

Judicial Process of Health Information

Principles of Liability

Ethical Standards

Ethical Decisions and Challenges

Bioethical Issues

Patient Record Requirements

Confidentiality and Informed Consent

Access to Health Information

Specialized Patient Records

Information Systems

Health-Care Fraud and Abuse

Law and Ethics in the Workplace

Filters

Exam 12: Risk Management, Quality Management, and Utilization Management

Which is an obstacle to peer review activities?

Which is characteristic of an incident report?

Peer Review Organizations (PROs) _____.

State legislatures have passed laws assigning a "privileged" status to peer review deliberations and review activities, an example of which includes _____.

Utilization review is described as a(n) _____.

Quality management is described as a _____.

Which is a legal consideration that applies to the retention of health care records?

An adverse incident is defined as a(n) _____.

Discovery occurs before trial and involves identifying and locating books, documents, or other tangible things and persons relating to the subject matter at issue.

HIPAA requires a covered entity to perform a risk analysis and implement standards to protect the institution's health information records. Which is one of those standards?

Charitable immunity is the _____.

Attorney client privilege protects the communications made between attorneys and their clients from disclosure to third parties.

If an incident report is inadvertently released during the discovery process along with the medical record, _____ applies.

Before an incident report is admitted into evidence, the document must _____.

The Joint Commission's role in sentinel events includes _____.

For which situation would an incident report be generated?

The Darling vs. Charleston Community Memorial Hospital case established the precedent that _____.

Which a nontechnical measure that might be employed to enhance security controls related to healthcare records access?

How does risk management differ from quality management?

Medicare's inpatient prospective payment system _____.

Workings of the American Legal System

Court Systems and Legal Procedures

Judicial Process of Health Information

Principles of Liability

Ethical Standards

Ethical Decisions and Challenges

Bioethical Issues

Patient Record Requirements

Confidentiality and Informed Consent

Access to Health Information

Specialized Patient Records

Information Systems

Health-Care Fraud and Abuse

Law and Ethics in the Workplace

Filters