Question 1

Which of the following statements is not true regarding cardiac arrhythmias?

Accepted Answer

A) Arrhythmia can cause a slowing, speeding up, or irregular heartbeat 
B) Supraventricular arrhythmias, ventricular arrhythmias, and bradyarrhythmias 
C) Supraventricular arrhythmias originate in the atria 
D) Sick sinus syndrome does not cause any arrhythmia 
A) Arrhythmia can cause a slowing, speeding up, or irregular heartbeat 
B) Supraventricular arrhythmias, ventricular arrhythmias, and bradyarrhythmias 
C) Supraventricular arrhythmias originate in the atria 
D) Sick sinus syndrome does not cause any arrhythmia D

Question 2

Which electrolyte abnormality will show shortened ventricular repolarization and shortened QT intervals on EKG?

Accepted Answer

A) Hypercalcemia 
B) Hypocalcemia 
C) Hyperkalemia 
D) Hypokalemia 
A) Hypercalcemia 
B) Hypocalcemia 
C) Hyperkalemia 
D) Hypokalemia A

Question 3

Alpha-adrenergic antagonists are used in the treatment of which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

A) Cardiac arrhythmia, carcinoid syndrome 
B) Cardiogenic shock, postprandial hypertension 
C) Hypotension, cardiac arrhythmia 
D) Hypertension, pheochromocytoma 
A) Cardiac arrhythmia, carcinoid syndrome 
B) Cardiogenic shock, postprandial hypertension 
C) Hypotension, cardiac arrhythmia 
D) Hypertension, pheochromocytoma D

Question 4

Which atrioventricular block does not impair cardiac function?

Accepted Answer

A) Hemiblock 
B) First-degree block 
C) Mobitz I block 
D) Right bundle branch block 
A) Hemiblock 
B) First-degree block 
C) Mobitz I block 
D) Right bundle branch block

Question 5

Which of the following classes of drugs constitute the vasodilator group of drugs?

Accepted Answer

A) Beta-blockers, nitrates, calcium channel blockers 
B) Beta-blockers, sympthomimetic drugs, diuretics 
C) Beta-agonist, cardiac glycoside, steroids 
D) Beta agonist, adrenaline, isoproterenol 
A) Beta-blockers, nitrates, calcium channel blockers 
B) Beta-blockers, sympthomimetic drugs, diuretics 
C) Beta-agonist, cardiac glycoside, steroids 
D) Beta agonist, adrenaline, isoproterenol

Question 6

A patient presents with complaints of dizziness and lightheadedness and history of one episode of syncope. The nurse record his pulse rate as 40/minute and blood pressure as 90/70 mm Hg. His EKG findings are suggestive of second-degree type II AV block. What should be the goal of treatment in this patient?

Accepted Answer

A) Increase the heart rate 
B) Restore sinus rhythm and maintain cardiac output 
C) Increase blood pressure 
D) Improve blood supply to vital organs 
A) Increase the heart rate 
B) Restore sinus rhythm and maintain cardiac output 
C) Increase blood pressure 
D) Improve blood supply to vital organs

Question 7

What is the condition called when the SA node fails to depolarize the atria?

Accepted Answer

A) Sinus pause 
B) Cardiac failure 
C) Atrial flutter 
D) Hypersensitization 
A) Sinus pause 
B) Cardiac failure 
C) Atrial flutter 
D) Hypersensitization

Question 8

Which of the following descriptions is correct according to the 5-position code of pacemakers?

Accepted Answer

A) Position one (I) - chambers being sensed, Position two (II) - chambers being paced, Position three (III) - device's response to sensing, Position four (IV) - programmability and rate of modulation function, Position five (V) - only for tachycardia funct 
B) Position one (I) - chambers being paced, Position two (II) - chambers being sensed, Position three (III) - device's response to sensing, Position four (IV) - programmability and rate of modulation function, Position five (V) - only for tachycardia funct 
C) Position one (I) - chambers being paced, Position two (II) - chambers being sensed, Position three (III) - device's response to sensing, Position four (IV) - for defibrillation function, Position five (V) - only for rate modulation 
D) Position one (I) - chambers being paced, Position two (II) - chambers being sensed, Position three (III) - device's response to sensing, Position four (IV) - programmability and rate of modulation function, Position five (V) - for defibrillation functio 
A) Position one (I) - chambers being sensed, Position two (II) - chambers being paced, Position three (III) - device's response to sensing, Position four (IV) - programmability and rate of modulation function, Position five (V) - only for tachycardia funct 
B) Position one (I) - chambers being paced, Position two (II) - chambers being sensed, Position three (III) - device's response to sensing, Position four (IV) - programmability and rate of modulation function, Position five (V) - only for tachycardia funct 
C) Position one (I) - chambers being paced, Position two (II) - chambers being sensed, Position three (III) - device's response to sensing, Position four (IV) - for defibrillation function, Position five (V) - only for rate modulation 
D) Position one (I) - chambers being paced, Position two (II) - chambers being sensed, Position three (III) - device's response to sensing, Position four (IV) - programmability and rate of modulation function, Position five (V) - for defibrillation functio

Question 9

What is the Mason Likar modification?

Accepted Answer

A) An adjustment made during metabolic formula used to account for errors due to obesity 
B) An alteration to the formula determining gross oxygen consumption for clients with asthma 
C) A different arrangement for placing electrodes in a 12-lead EKG 
D) A way to add resistance to certain exercises without physically increasing the weight of the dumbbell or apparatus 
A) An adjustment made during metabolic formula used to account for errors due to obesity 
B) An alteration to the formula determining gross oxygen consumption for clients with asthma 
C) A different arrangement for placing electrodes in a 12-lead EKG 
D) A way to add resistance to certain exercises without physically increasing the weight of the dumbbell or apparatus

Question 10

What is specifically recorded by LEAD III on a 12-lead EKG?

Accepted Answer

A) The difference in electrical potential between the left leg and left arm electrodes 
B) The difference in electrical potential between the left leg and right arm electrodes 
C) The difference in electrical potential between the left arm and right arm electrodes 
D) The electrical potential at one site relative to zero potential 
A) The difference in electrical potential between the left leg and left arm electrodes 
B) The difference in electrical potential between the left leg and right arm electrodes 
C) The difference in electrical potential between the left arm and right arm electrodes 
D) The electrical potential at one site relative to zero potential

Question 11

What does the horizontal aspect of the EKG measure?

Accepted Answer

A) Voltage 
B) Duration 
C) Watts 
D) Waveforms 
A) Voltage 
B) Duration 
C) Watts 
D) Waveforms

Question 12

In particular, which type of atrioventricular block patient would be a good candidate for the implantation of a pacemaker?

Accepted Answer

A) Hemiblocks 
B) Transmural ischemic blocks 
C) Posterior fascicular block 
D) Third-degree block 
A) Hemiblocks 
B) Transmural ischemic blocks 
C) Posterior fascicular block 
D) Third-degree block

Question 13

Which of the following signs and symptoms would the attending nurse expect to see in a patient of aneurysmal rupture?

Accepted Answer

A) Pain abdomen, hypertension, bradycardia 
B) Hypotension, tachycardia, nausea, vomiting, shortness of breath, chest pain/lower back/abdominal pain 
C) Headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo 
D) Hypertension, chest pain, syncope 
A) Pain abdomen, hypertension, bradycardia 
B) Hypotension, tachycardia, nausea, vomiting, shortness of breath, chest pain/lower back/abdominal pain 
C) Headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo 
D) Hypertension, chest pain, syncope

Question 14

A patient is wearing Holter monitor. What instructions should the nurse give to follow during monitoring?

Accepted Answer

A) Stop all his regular medications 
B) Maintain an activity diary of his physical activities 
C) Restrict physical activity 
D) Do strenuous exercise 
A) Stop all his regular medications 
B) Maintain an activity diary of his physical activities 
C) Restrict physical activity 
D) Do strenuous exercise

Question 15

A patient was planning to undergo Mitral valve replacement surgery. He was on warfarin therapy for Atrial Fibrillation. What modification should the nurse do with the anticoagulant medication?

Accepted Answer

A) Stop warfarin on the day of surgery 
B) Stop warfarin 4-5 days before surgery 
C) Stop warfarin 4-5 days prior to surgery; admit and start on IV heparin; stop IV heparin 2-3 hours pre-op 
D) Continue warfarin therapy 
A) Stop warfarin on the day of surgery 
B) Stop warfarin 4-5 days before surgery 
C) Stop warfarin 4-5 days prior to surgery; admit and start on IV heparin; stop IV heparin 2-3 hours pre-op 
D) Continue warfarin therapy

Question 16

Which characteristic below accurately describes a T wave?

Accepted Answer

A) Frequently hard to detect in a normal EKG 
B) Suggests ischemia if inverted 
C) Prominent peaks may indicate myocardial infarction or hyperkalemia 
D) Is normally perfectly symmetrical 
A) Frequently hard to detect in a normal EKG 
B) Suggests ischemia if inverted 
C) Prominent peaks may indicate myocardial infarction or hyperkalemia 
D) Is normally perfectly symmetrical

Question 17

Choose the statement below which correctly defines intermittent claudication.

Accepted Answer

A) The condition is defined as muscle cramp during physical activity which resolves once activity is stopped 
B) Intermittent claudication arises from occlusion of peripheral arteries 
C) It consists of muscle cramps during night which is severe enough to awake the patient 
D) It consists of joint pain which resolves when the patient starts walking 
A) The condition is defined as muscle cramp during physical activity which resolves once activity is stopped 
B) Intermittent claudication arises from occlusion of peripheral arteries 
C) It consists of muscle cramps during night which is severe enough to awake the patient 
D) It consists of joint pain which resolves when the patient starts walking

Question 18

What is the procedure that uses a balloon to flatten plaque against the wall of an artery to create a more patent space within the artery for improved blood flow?

Accepted Answer

A) Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (PTC
A)  
B) Atherectomy 
C) Laser Angioplasty 
D) Coronary Artery Bypass Graft Surgery (CABGS) 
A) Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (PTC
A)  
B) Atherectomy 
C) Laser Angioplasty 
D) Coronary Artery Bypass Graft Surgery (CABGS)

Question 19

Which leads on the EKG view the electrical activity of the heart on the horizontal plane?

Accepted Answer

A) Leads I through III 
B) Bipolar leads 
C) Augmented unipolar leads 
D) Unipolar precordial leads 
A) Leads I through III 
B) Bipolar leads 
C) Augmented unipolar leads 
D) Unipolar precordial leads

Question 20

What condition may be indicated very early by an EKG with ST elevations, or tall, upright T waves?

Accepted Answer

A) Sudden cardiac death 
B) Myocardial ischemia 
C) Transmural myocardial infarction 
D) Coronary artery disease 
A) Sudden cardiac death 
B) Myocardial ischemia 
C) Transmural myocardial infarction 
D) Coronary artery disease

Which of the following statements is not true regarding cardiac arrhythmias?

Which electrolyte abnormality will show shortened ventricular repolarization and shortened QT intervals on EKG?

Alpha-adrenergic antagonists are used in the treatment of which of the following conditions?

Which atrioventricular block does not impair cardiac function?

Which of the following classes of drugs constitute the vasodilator group of drugs?

What is the condition called when the SA node fails to depolarize the atria?

Which of the following descriptions is correct according to the 5-position code of pacemakers?

What is the Mason Likar modification?

What is specifically recorded by LEAD III on a 12-lead EKG?

What does the horizontal aspect of the EKG measure?

In particular, which type of atrioventricular block patient would be a good candidate for the implantation of a pacemaker?

Which of the following signs and symptoms would the attending nurse expect to see in a patient of aneurysmal rupture?

A patient is wearing Holter monitor. What instructions should the nurse give to follow during monitoring?

A patient was planning to undergo Mitral valve replacement surgery. He was on warfarin therapy for Atrial Fibrillation. What modification should the nurse do with the anticoagulant medication?

Which characteristic below accurately describes a T wave?

Choose the statement below which correctly defines intermittent claudication.

What is the procedure that uses a balloon to flatten plaque against the wall of an artery to create a more patent space within the artery for improved blood flow?

Which leads on the EKG view the electrical activity of the heart on the horizontal plane?

What condition may be indicated very early by an EKG with ST elevations, or tall, upright T waves?

Cardiac

AACN Cardiac Vascular Nursing

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Exam 1: Free CSC

Which of the following statements is not true regarding cardiac arrhythmias?

Which electrolyte abnormality will show shortened ventricular repolarization and shortened QT intervals on EKG?

Alpha-adrenergic antagonists are used in the treatment of which of the following conditions?

Which atrioventricular block does not impair cardiac function?

Which of the following classes of drugs constitute the vasodilator group of drugs?

What is the condition called when the SA node fails to depolarize the atria?

Which of the following descriptions is correct according to the 5-position code of pacemakers?

What is the Mason Likar modification?

What is specifically recorded by LEAD III on a 12-lead EKG?

What does the horizontal aspect of the EKG measure?

In particular, which type of atrioventricular block patient would be a good candidate for the implantation of a pacemaker?

Which of the following signs and symptoms would the attending nurse expect to see in a patient of aneurysmal rupture?

A patient is wearing Holter monitor. What instructions should the nurse give to follow during monitoring?

A patient was planning to undergo Mitral valve replacement surgery. He was on warfarin therapy for Atrial Fibrillation. What modification should the nurse do with the anticoagulant medication?

Which characteristic below accurately describes a T wave?

Choose the statement below which correctly defines intermittent claudication.

What is the procedure that uses a balloon to flatten plaque against the wall of an artery to create a more patent space within the artery for improved blood flow?

Which leads on the EKG view the electrical activity of the heart on the horizontal plane?

What condition may be indicated very early by an EKG with ST elevations, or tall, upright T waves?

Cardiac

AACN Cardiac Vascular Nursing

Filters