Question 1

Which of the following statements accurately describes anemia?

Accepted Answer

A) Anemia is an abnormally low level of circulating red blood cells. 
B) Anemia is an abnormally low hemoglobin concentration. 
C) Anemia does not result from blood loss. 
D) A and B. 
A) Anemia is an abnormally low level of circulating red blood cells. 
B) Anemia is an abnormally low hemoglobin concentration. 
C) Anemia does not result from blood loss. 
D) A and B.

Question 2

Children become burned by accident all the time. What is the most common type of burn?

Accepted Answer

A) Chemical 
B) Direct fire 
C) Scalding 
D) Electrical 
A) Chemical 
B) Direct fire 
C) Scalding 
D) Electrical

Question 3

When assessing a child with tetralogy of Fallot, which of the following assessment findings is expected?

Accepted Answer

A) Poor growth and development 
B) Higher increase in blood pressures in the upper extremities than with the lower extremities 
C) Clubbing of fingers and toes 
D) Machine-like murmur 
A) Poor growth and development 
B) Higher increase in blood pressures in the upper extremities than with the lower extremities 
C) Clubbing of fingers and toes 
D) Machine-like murmur

Question 4

A patient suspected of osteomyelitis is ordered to have an X-ray of the affected leg to verify the diagnosis. Which of the following is/are the earliest findings of osteomyelitis on an X-ray?

Accepted Answer

A) Fracture 
B) Periosteal elevation 
C) Punched-out lesions 
D) Sequestrum 
A) Fracture 
B) Periosteal elevation 
C) Punched-out lesions 
D) Sequestrum

Question 5

All of the following are ECG findings of premature atrial contractions, except:

Accepted Answer

A) P waves may be present 
B) The QRS is usually narrow 
C) Extra P waves may be hidden within the QRS complex or T waves 
D) P waves are invariably absent 
A) P waves may be present 
B) The QRS is usually narrow 
C) Extra P waves may be hidden within the QRS complex or T waves 
D) P waves are invariably absent

Question 6

A male patient demonstrates difficulty getting up from a seated position without using his arms. Muscle pain and proximal muscle weakness are reported by the patient, as well. No rashes are observed. Testing reveals elevated CPK and aldose with abnormal electromyogram. The patient is mostly likely diagnosed with:

Accepted Answer

A) Dermatomyositis 
B) Polymyositis 
C) Crest syndrome 
D) Eosinophilic fasciitis 
A) Dermatomyositis 
B) Polymyositis 
C) Crest syndrome 
D) Eosinophilic fasciitis

Question 7

On assessment, a patient who sustained a head injury is not able to obey simple responses consistently, but is able to localize painful stimuli. The patient engaged in confused conversation. Eye-opening is not spontaneous, but response to sound is evident. The patient's score on the Glasgow Coma Scale is ________ .

Accepted Answer

A) 13 
B) 12 
C) 10 
D) 9 
A) 13 
B) 12 
C) 10 
D) 9

Question 8

A female patient with a peptic ulcer is scheduled for vagotomy. The purpose of this surgical procedure is to:

Accepted Answer

A) Enhance gastric emptying 
B) Remove the ulcer and a portion of cells that produce hydrochloric acid 
C) Avoid or prevent stimulation for hydrochloric acid secretion 
D) Decrease pyloric obstruction 
A) Enhance gastric emptying 
B) Remove the ulcer and a portion of cells that produce hydrochloric acid 
C) Avoid or prevent stimulation for hydrochloric acid secretion 
D) Decrease pyloric obstruction

Question 9

An HIV-positive woman is 8 weeks pregnant. To prevent maternal-fetal HIV transmission, zidovudine (AZT) is administered. Which of the following shows the appropriate way and schedule of administrating this medication to pregnant women?

Accepted Answer

A) The mother is administered with zidovudine orally beginning at 8 weeks gestation until 6 months after the delivery. The neonate should take the medication for 6 months. 
B) The mother is administered with zidovudine orally beginning at 14 weeks gestation and intravenously during labor. The neonate should take the medication after birth for 6 weeks and in its syrup form. 
C) The mother is administered with zidovudine orally beginning at 14 weeks gestation and intravenously during labor. The neonate should take the medication beginning at 6 weeks of life until their second birthday. 
D) The mother is administered with zidovudine orally beginning at 28 weeks gestation. The child and the mother take the zidovudine syrup after birth. 
A) The mother is administered with zidovudine orally beginning at 8 weeks gestation until 6 months after the delivery. The neonate should take the medication for 6 months. 
B) The mother is administered with zidovudine orally beginning at 14 weeks gestation and intravenously during labor. The neonate should take the medication after birth for 6 weeks and in its syrup form. 
C) The mother is administered with zidovudine orally beginning at 14 weeks gestation and intravenously during labor. The neonate should take the medication beginning at 6 weeks of life until their second birthday. 
D) The mother is administered with zidovudine orally beginning at 28 weeks gestation. The child and the mother take the zidovudine syrup after birth.

Question 10

A 19-year-old comes to the office to be screened for tuberculosis. The patient works in a long-term care facility. She says that she lives with a friend who was diagnosed with tuberculosis 2 months ago and is currently on treatment. The PPD test is administered and the patient returns 48 hours after the test to have the result read. The site of the test is reddened and raised about 7 mm. This PPD would be read as having which of the following results?

Accepted Answer

A) Negative 
B) Positive 
C) Indeterminate 
D) Needs to be redone 
A) Negative 
B) Positive 
C) Indeterminate 
D) Needs to be redone

Question 11

A 38-year-old man who sustained a lung contusion 24 hours ago presents with dyspnea, tachypnea, and anxiety. Progressive respiratory distress develops, though oxygen has been administered. Based on these findings, it is most likely that the patient is diagnosed with:

Accepted Answer

A) Atelectasis 
B) Bronchiectasis 
C) Acute respiratory distress syndrome 
D) Respiratory failure 
A) Atelectasis 
B) Bronchiectasis 
C) Acute respiratory distress syndrome 
D) Respiratory failure

Question 12

A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease is prescribed with magnesium hydroxide. Which of the following is the most common side effect of this antacid?

Accepted Answer

A) Diarrhea 
B) Constipation 
C) Abdominal pain 
D) Nausea 
A) Diarrhea 
B) Constipation 
C) Abdominal pain 
D) Nausea

Question 13

A patient comes to the office presenting with paroxysmal or sustained hypertension, severe headaches, palpitations, flushing, heat intolerance, and hyperglycemia. Further laboratory results reveal that the patient's levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine are excessive. Based on these findings, the patient is most likely diagnosed with:

Accepted Answer

A) Hypothyroidism 
B) Hyperthyroidism 
C) Pheochromocytoma 
D) Addison's disease 
A) Hypothyroidism 
B) Hyperthyroidism 
C) Pheochromocytoma 
D) Addison's disease

Question 14

You are assessing a 32-year-old male client. On scrotal examination, the you palpate a smooth nodule. Which of the following should you do?

Accepted Answer

A) Document the findings as normal 
B) Call in the physician 
C) Darken the room and transilluminate the scrotum 
D) Assist the client to Sim's position 
A) Document the findings as normal 
B) Call in the physician 
C) Darken the room and transilluminate the scrotum 
D) Assist the client to Sim's position

Question 15

To determine the fetal lung maturity, which of the following tests is performed?

Accepted Answer

A) Alpha-fetoprotein screening 
B) Chorionic villus sampling 
C) Amniocentesis 
D) Fern test 
A) Alpha-fetoprotein screening 
B) Chorionic villus sampling 
C) Amniocentesis 
D) Fern test

Question 16

A 25-year-old man comes to the office and complains of fever, sore throat, and malaise. Further examination revealed lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegay. The patient is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. What is the causative agent of this infection?

Accepted Answer

A) Enteroviruses 
B) Paramyxovirus 
C) Epstein-Barr 
D) Cytomegalovirus 
A) Enteroviruses 
B) Paramyxovirus 
C) Epstein-Barr 
D) Cytomegalovirus

Question 17

A patient sustained full-thickness burns on the upper left arm. Which of the following best describes the extent of full-thickness burns?

Accepted Answer

A) Burn involves the muscle and bone. Pain is absent. 
B) Large blisters are evident, with wet, shiny, and weeping surfaces. 
C) The burned area is deep red, black, white, yellow, or brown. 
D) Mild to severe erythema, from pink to red, without blisters. 
A) Burn involves the muscle and bone. Pain is absent. 
B) Large blisters are evident, with wet, shiny, and weeping surfaces. 
C) The burned area is deep red, black, white, yellow, or brown. 
D) Mild to severe erythema, from pink to red, without blisters.

Question 18

A patient is prescribed with levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid). On assessment, the patient demonstrates intolerance to cold, bradycardia, weakness, and dry skin and hair. The patient gained weight since the last assessment. Based on these findings, which of the following prescriptions is ordered?

Accepted Answer

A) Decrease the dose of levothyroxine 
B) Increase the dose of levothyroxine 
C) Maintain the dose of levothyroxine 
D) Change the medication 
A) Decrease the dose of levothyroxine 
B) Increase the dose of levothyroxine 
C) Maintain the dose of levothyroxine 
D) Change the medication

Question 19

The nurse is assessing the visual acuity of a client using the Snellen chart. The examination reveals that the client has a visual acuity of 20/120. The client asks the nurse what it means. Which of the following responses by the nurse is the most accurate?

Accepted Answer

A) "You are legally blind." 
B) "You have perfect vision." 
C) "What you can read at 20 feet what can be read at 120 feet by an eye with perfect vision" 
D) "What you can read at 120 feet what can read what a healthy eye can read at 20 feet." 
A) "You are legally blind." 
B) "You have perfect vision." 
C) "What you can read at 20 feet what can be read at 120 feet by an eye with perfect vision" 
D) "What you can read at 120 feet what can read what a healthy eye can read at 20 feet."

Question 20

The total lung capacity is the total volume of the lungs. The total volume of the lungs depend on the following values:

Accepted Answer

A) Tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, residual volume 
B) Tidal volume, expiratory reserve volume, residual volume 
C) Tidal volume, inspiratory capacity, expiratory reserve volume, residual volume 
D) Vital capacity, residual volume 
A) Tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, residual volume 
B) Tidal volume, expiratory reserve volume, residual volume 
C) Tidal volume, inspiratory capacity, expiratory reserve volume, residual volume 
D) Vital capacity, residual volume

Exam 1: The Physician Assistant National Recertifying Exam (PANRE)