Exam 45: Criminal Law and Procedure
Exam 1: Legal Foundations and Thinking Strategically49 Questions
Exam 2: Business, Societal, and Ethical Contexts of Law46 Questions
Exam 3: Business and the Constitution41 Questions
Exam 4: The American Judicial System, Jurisdiction, and Venue24 Questions
Exam 5: Resolving Disputes: Litigation and Alternative Dispute Resolution25 Questions
Exam 6: Contracts: Overview, Definition, Categories, and Source of Law36 Questions
Exam 7: Mutual Assent: Agreement and Consideration49 Questions
Exam 8: Capacity and Legality49 Questions
Exam 9: Enforceability49 Questions
Exam 10: Performance27 Questions
Exam 11: Breach and Remedies28 Questions
Exam 12: Contracts for the Sale of Goods: Overview of Article 241 Questions
Exam 13: Sales Contracts: Agreement, Consideration, and the Statute of Frauds26 Questions
Exam 14: Title, Allocation of Risk, and Insurable Interest37 Questions
Exam 15: Performance and Cure in Sales Contracts43 Questions
Exam 16: Breach and Remedies in a Sales Transaction39 Questions
Exam 17: UCC Article 2A: Lease Contracts45 Questions
Exam 18: Sales Warranties29 Questions
Exam 19: Definition, Creation, and Categories of Negotiable Instruments47 Questions
Exam 20: Negotiation, Endorsements, and Holder in Due Course48 Questions
Exam 21: Liability, Defenses, and Discharge50 Questions
Exam 22: Checks, Deposits, and Financial Institutions49 Questions
Exam 23: Secured Transactions48 Questions
Exam 24: Creditors Rights38 Questions
Exam 25: Alternatives for Insolvent Borrowers47 Questions
Exam 26: Bankruptcy17 Questions
Exam 27: Choice of Business Entity and Sole Proprietorships32 Questions
Exam 28: Partnerships29 Questions
Exam 29: Limited Liability Partnerships and Limited Liability Companies39 Questions
Exam 30: Corporations: Formation and Organization24 Questions
Exam 31: Corporate Transactions: Acquisitions and Mergers49 Questions
Exam 32: Overview of the Securities Market: Definition, Categories, and Regulation62 Questions
Exam 33: Regulation of Issuance: The Securities Act of 193366 Questions
Exam 34: Regulation of Trading: The Securities Exchange Act of 193444 Questions
Exam 35: Regulation of Corporate Governance45 Questions
Exam 36: Regulation of Financial Markets45 Questions
Exam 37: Agency Formation, Categories, and Authority35 Questions
Exam 38: Duties and Liabilities of Principals and Agents30 Questions
Exam 39: Employment at Will49 Questions
Exam 40: Employment Regulation and Labor Law41 Questions
Exam 41: Employment Discrimination39 Questions
Exam 42: Torts and Products Liability29 Questions
Exam 43: Administrative Law15 Questions
Exam 44: Consumer Protection30 Questions
Exam 45: Criminal Law and Procedure36 Questions
Exam 46: Insurance Law50 Questions
Exam 47: Environmental Law28 Questions
Exam 48: Personal Property, Real Property, and Land Use Law15 Questions
Exam 49: Wills, Trusts, and Estates50 Questions
Exam 50: Intellectual Property13 Questions
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As a minimum, procedural due process requires notice:
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
A
Criminal procedure consists of a body of law that, for the purposes of preventing harm to society, defines what conduct is criminal and prescribes the punishment to be imposed for such conduct.
Free
(True/False)
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Correct Answer:
False
Violations of federal laws are investigated by various federal law enforcement agencies, including:
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
D
Criminal law consists of a body of law that, for the purposes of preventing harm to __________, defines what conduct is criminal and prescribes the punishment to be imposed for such conduct.
(Multiple Choice)
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Courts have held that authorities generally do not commit a Fourth Amendment violation when a government agent obtains evidence by virtue of seeing an object that is in the agent's __________ and the agent has the right to be in the position to have that view.
(Multiple Choice)
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Criminal procedure refers to the legal process and safeguards afforded to individuals (and in some cases business entities) during __________.
(Multiple Choice)
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The criminal justice system is best thought of as one process that operates in two phases: investigation and adjudication.
(True/False)
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Nearly three-quarters of the states have enacted criminal codes based on the Model Penal Code (MPC) adopted by the American Law Institute (ALI) in 1962.
(True/False)
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Prosecutors have been increasingly willing to prosecute black-collar criminals under federal laws prohibiting the obstruction of justice for any conduct related to attempting to cover up evidence of wrongdoing.
(True/False)
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The federal Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO) was enacted in 1970 to provide the government with a powerful tool to fight the rising tide of organized crime. One purpose of the RICO law was to prevent organized crime from infiltrating legitimate business operations.
(True/False)
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Aerial observations made by authorities are considered in __________ if the plane or helicopter is in public navigable airspace.
(Multiple Choice)
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Criminal liability requires both a bad act (actus reus) and a guilty mind (mens rea).
(True/False)
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Criminal law is based on state and federal laws that started as common law crimes but were codified into statutes based on the __________.
(Multiple Choice)
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Criminal statutes are designed to protect society, and the violation of a criminal law results in a penalty to the violator, such as a fine or imprisonment, based on the wrongdoer's level of culpability.
(True/False)
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Under the inclusionary rule, trial courts are required to exclude presentation of any evidence that is obtained as a result of a constitutional violation.
(True/False)
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Criminal procedure sets limits on the government's authority in applying criminal law.
(True/False)
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Misdemeanors are crimes that generally carry one year or more of incarceration as the penalty.
(True/False)
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The responsible corporate officer doctrine, commonly referred to as the __________, permits the government to prosecute employees for corporate misconduct when they are in a position of authority and fail to prevent or correct a violation of the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
(Multiple Choice)
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If a jury is unable to come to a consensus decision, a(n) __________ will be declared.
(Multiple Choice)
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