Exam 32: Modeling Correlated Default
Exam 1: Overview20 Questions
Exam 2: Futures Markets20 Questions
Exam 3: Pricing Forwards and Futures I25 Questions
Exam 4: Pricing Forwards Futures II20 Questions
Exam 5: Hedging With Futures Forwards23 Questions
Exam 6: Interest-Rate Forwards Futures23 Questions
Exam 7: Options Markets25 Questions
Exam 8: Options: Payoffs Trading Strategies25 Questions
Exam 9: No-Arbitrage Restrictions19 Questions
Exam 10: Early-Exercise/Put-Call Parity20 Questions
Exam 11: Option Pricing: An Introduction26 Questions
Exam 12: Binomial Option Pricing31 Questions
Exam 13: Implementing the Binomial Model16 Questions
Exam 14: The Black-Scholes Model32 Questions
Exam 15: Mathematics of Black-Scholes15 Questions
Exam 16: Beyond Black-Scholes27 Questions
Exam 17: The Option Greeks35 Questions
Exam 18: Path-Independent Exotic Options40 Questions
Exam 19: Exotic Options II: Path-Dependent Options33 Questions
Exam 20: Value at Risk34 Questions
Exam 21: Swaps and Floating Rate Products34 Questions
Exam 22: Equity Swaps23 Questions
Exam 23: Currency and Commodity Swaps24 Questions
Exam 24: Term Structure of Interest Rates: Concepts24 Questions
Exam 25: Estimating the Yield Curve18 Questions
Exam 26: Modeling Term Structure Movements13 Questions
Exam 27: Factor Models of the Term Structure22 Questions
Exam 28: The Heath-Jarrow-Morton Hjmand Libor Market Model LMM20 Questions
Exam 29: Credit Derivative Products32 Questions
Exam 30: Structural Models of Default Risk25 Questions
Exam 31: Reduced-Form Models of Default Risk23 Questions
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Consider two firms with one-year probabilities of default of and ,respectively.The correlation of default of the two firms is .What is the conditional probability of default ?
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(Multiple Choice)
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C
If a firm has a distance-to-default of 2,and we assume a normal distribution,then the probability of a firm defaulting is
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D
Which of the following isnot a reason to favor the top-down approach to modeling correlated default versus the bottom-up approach?
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Correct Answer:
D
You are assessing a credit portfolio with 100 issuers where the hazard rate of default of each name is 0.05.The default correlation of all firms (pairwise)is zero.What is the average time it will take for 10% of the portfolio to default?
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Consider two firms,each of which has a distance-to-default of 2.The correlation of default of the two firms is .Assuming bivariate normality,what is the value of a $100 notional first-to-default basket option on these two firms,if the discount rate is zero?
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If you expect default correlations to increase in the future,what trade might you engage in to profit from this view?
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Consider two firms with one-year probabilities of default of and ,respectively.The correlation of default of these two firms is .What is the price of a $100 notional one-year maturity first-to-default basket option on these two firms? (Assume the discount rate is zero. )
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Consider two firms with one-year probabilities of default of and ,respectively.The correlation of default of the two firms is .What is the conditional probability of default ?
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Which of the following is an Archimedean copula over two distribution functions
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A second-to-default (STD)basket option pays off when any one of the companies in a credit basket defaults.The price of the STD basket increases when
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Consider two firms with one-year probabilities of default of and ,respectively.The conditional probability of default in one year is .What is the correlation of default of these two firms closest to?
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Which of the following isnot an important benefit of using copula functions for correlated default?
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Consider two firms with one-year probabilities of default of and ,respectively.The conditional probability of default in one year is .What is the probability of a second-to-default basket option that pays $100 if any both firms default within a year? (Assume zero discount rates. )
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In the Longstaff and Rajan top-down correlated default model,assume that losses in a credit portfolio are given by the following dynamic process in a one-factor setting: where is a fractional loss (of the current portfolio value)that occurs every time there is a default,assumed to be generated by a Poisson process with loss arrival rate (a constant).What is the expected loss of a $100 portfolio in a year if and ?
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A CDO has three tranches,a senior tranche,mezzanine tranche,and equity tranche.Keeping the probabilities of default in the CDO collateral fixed,the value of the equity tranche increases if
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The difference between implied correlation and base correlation in CDOs is that
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Two firms that have zero default correlation and expected losses conditional on default of $2 million and $3 million,respectively.The probability of loss of the two firms in one year is 0.10 and 0.05,respectively.What is the mean loss of this portfolio?
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Consider two firms with one-year probabilities of default of and ,respectively.The correlation of default of these two firms is .What is the price of a $100 notional one-year maturity second-to-default basket option on these two firms? (Assume the discount rate is zero. )
(Multiple Choice)
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Consider two firms with one-year probabilities of default of and ,respectively.The conditional probability of default in one year is .What is the probability of a first-to-default basket option that pays $100 if any one firm defaults within a year? (Assume zero discount rates. )
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