Deck 9: Foundations of Group Behavior

Question 1

During the third stage of group development ________.

A) conflicts over leadership are common
B) groups disband
C) intragroup conflicts occur
D) the group demonstrates cohesiveness
E) members resist the constraints the group places on them

Answer 1

D

Question 2

________ is defined as the tendency to see members of the group of which we are a part of as better than other people.

A) Xenocentrism
B) Hindsight bias
C) Black sheep effect
D) In-group homogeneity
E) In-group favoritism

Answer 2

E

Question 3

In the context of the social identity theory, distinctiveness refers to the ________.

A) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves favorably
B) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else's culture over their own
C) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
D) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

Answer 3

E

Question 4

By the end of the stage of ________, a relatively clear hierarchy of leadership within the group is established.

A) storming
B) norming
C) adjourning
D) performing
E) forming

Question 5

An informal group is characterized by the ________.

A) fulfillment of the need for social contact
B) pursuit of particular organizational goals.
C) predetermined designation of tasks of members.
D) creation of timelines and rationale
E) stipulation of expected behaviors by the organization

Question 6

Which of the following is true with regard to the social identity theory?

A) It proposes that members take personal pride in accomplishments but dissociate from the group in the event of any offenses or failures.
B) It proposes that social identities can never be detrimental as they have no effect on how members of an in-group view members of an out-group.
C) It proposes that people have emotional reactions to the failure or success of their group because their self-esteem is tied into the group's performance.
D) It proposes that people develop only one social identity in childhood that becomes more defined and concrete in the course of their lives.
E) It proposes that members of an in-group are viewed as being homogenous, while members of an out-group are seen as being heterogeneous.

Question 7

When the group energy is focused on the task at hand and the group is fully functional, it is said to be in the stage of ________.

A) performing
B) storming
C) inertia
D) forming
E) norming

Question 8

Status is a characteristic under the social identity theory that reflects the ________.

A) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
B) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably
C) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
D) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups
E) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else's culture over their own

Question 9

Our tendency to take personal pride or offense for the accomplishments of a group we are a part of, is the territory of the ________ theory.

A) social exchange
B) social identity
C) equity
D) reinforcement
E) expectancy

Question 10

Which of the following is true with regard to groups?

A) A group typically lacks definite roles and structures.
B) A group influences our emotional reactions.
C) The membership of a group does not affect how its members treat outsiders.
D) A group is characterized by the independence of its members.
E) An informal gathering cannot be considered a group.

Question 11

Aaron Dias was working on the last shift for the day at All Needs, a retail store owned by an Asian man, when he opened the cash register and stole some money thinking that nobody would witness him stealing. However, one of the customer attendants watched him steal the money and reported it to the manager the next day, following which Aaron was terminated. Subsequently, the manager became extremely strict with all his Caucasian employees and was often heard abusing them saying "you guys are all the same." This scenario depicts ________.

A) social exchange
B) in-group favoritism
C) contrast bias
D) groupthink
E) social loafing

Question 12

At Milton farms, where a large part of the management comes from the same sociocultural background, many employees of diverse ethical or cultural origins are hired only to ensure legal compliance with laws relating to diversity at the workplace. The company's day-to-day functioning leaves much to be desired in terms of promoting diversity. Recently, the owner's cousin was promoted to the post of a branch manager while three suitable candidates hailing from a different cultures were blatantly overlooked. This is an example of ________.

A) social exchange
B) contrast bias
C) in-group favoritism
D) groupthink
E) social loafing

Question 13

Which of the following statements is true regarding the norming stage of group development?

A) This stage is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group's purpose, structure, and leadership.
B) According to the five-stage group development model, this is the second stage in the group development model.
C) During this stage, the group develops a common set of expectations of what defines correct member behavior.
D) During this stage, members accept the existence of the group but resist the constraints it imposes on individuality.
E) During this stage the group completes the task at hand.

Question 14

Which of the following represents the second stage in the five-stage group development model?

A) norming
B) adjourning
C) storming
D) performing
E) forming

Question 15

Similarity is a characteristic under the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________.

A) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else's culture over their own
B) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves favorably
C) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups
D) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
E) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater group identification as well

Question 16

Which of the following differentiates between formal and informal groups?

A) The timeline of reference for formal groups is greater than that for informal groups.
B) Formal groups are typically smaller in size when compared to informal groups.
C) Formal groups pursue the goal of social contact, while informal groups have definite organizational goals to attain.
D) The impact of formal groups on organizational performance is lesser than that of informal groups.
E) Formal groups involve clearly defined tasks and roles, while informal groups are neither formally structured nor organizationally determined.

Question 17

The second stage of the five-stage group development model is characterized by ________.

A) intragroup conflict within the group
B) cohesiveness and close relationships among members of the group
C) strong feelings of group identity among members of the group
D) uncertainty about the purpose, structure, and leadership of the group
E) pride in the accomplishments of the group

Question 18

Uncertainty reduction is a dimension of the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________.

A) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably
B) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups
C) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
D) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else's culture over their own
E) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well

Question 19

Which of the following stages of the five-stage group development model is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group's purpose, structure, and leadership?

A) norming
B) evolution
C) forming
D) introduction
E) storming

Question 20

Which of the following is true regarding formal groups?

A) A group of people who come together to protest against a new law make up a formal group.
B) They are natural formations that arise in response to the need for social contact.
C) They are marked by stipulated behaviors in pursuit of organizational goals.
D) They have negligible impact on employee performance and behavior.
E) They lack clearly defined structures and roles for their members.

Question 21

The important groups to which an individual belongs or hopes to belong are known as ________ groups.

A) reference
B) nominal
C) control
D) organizational
E) interacting

Question 22

Role ________ is defined as the way others believe you should act in a given context.

A) fuzziness
B) expectation
C) perception
D) enhancement
E) conflict

Question 23

Most people assume that a police officer should behave in a lawful manner, refrain from demonstrating favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the law. Which of the following terms best represents these beliefs?

A) dispersion of responsibility
B) diversity
C) similarity
D) uncertainty reduction
E) role expectation

Question 24

Which of the following represents the major determinants of group development and functioning as depicted by the punctuated-equilibrium model?

A) deadlines and time constraints
B) promotion of diversity
C) better perspectives and patterns
D) role perception and expectation
E) group solidarity and collectivist goals

Question 25

Which of the following is an example of performance norms?

A) rules in informal groups
B) dress codes
C) assignment of difficult jobs, pay, and equipment
D) the manner in which a job must be done
E) distribution of pay

Question 26

Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding the performing stage?

A) During the performing stage, members accept the existence of the group but resist the constraints it imposes on individuality.
B) For permanent work groups, performing is the last stage in development.
C) The performing stage involves members trying out different behaviors in order to understand which behaviors the group considers acceptable.
D) The performing stage is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group's purpose, structure, and leadership.
E) During the performing stage there is conflict over who will control the group.

Question 27

Tabby Tolman is a project coordinator at Tristar Solutions. Whenever a new project comes her way, she holds a project meeting and follows it up with repeated meetings to address any concerns the team may have and to monitor their progress. However, with the peak of the business season arriving, she has been holding just one project initiation meeting for every project to save on time. She has become increasingly worried about the team's progress with no inputs coming from the members and she has had no time to check with them. With two weeks left to go for a high priority project of a month's duration, she has now begun to see some work coming through and is relieved. This development reflects that the group is at the stage of ________.

A) storming
B) forming
C) transition following the halfway mark in the timeline
D) inertia following the first meeting
E) second phase of inertia before the group's last meeting

Question 28

The determination of the behavioral patterns and assumptions through which the group approaches the project is a function of the ________ phase in the punctuated-equilibrium model.

A) performing
B) equilibrium
C) transition
D) inertia
E) first meeting

Question 29

Which of the following represents the acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group's members?

A) goals
B) norms
C) dyads
D) status
E) cliques

Question 30

The ________ norms dictate behavior such as with whom group members eat lunch and friendships on and off the job.

A) reference
B) social arrangement
C) organizational
D) performance
E) appearance

Question 31

Role perception is defined as ________.

A) the degree to which members are motivated to stay in the group.
B) the socially defined position or rank given to group members by others
C) the way others believe we should act in a given context
D) the existence of roles that are at variance with one another
E) our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation

Question 32

Janice Cooper has recently joined a hospital as a part of the internship program prescribed by the nursing school she attends. Janice, who was inspired to take up this profession by the story of Florence Nightingale, had very strong ideals about how she should behave as a nurse. She felt that as a nurse, she must be gentle, pleasant, and caring at all times so she could serve her patients well, and she often went to great lengths as an intern by putting in extra hours at the hospital and so on. The scenario reflects Janice's ________.

A) role fuzziness
B) role perception
C) role status
D) role ambiguity
E) role conflict

Question 33

When ________, the result is role conflict.

A) compliance with the group is strengthened by members who have similar values and characteristics
B) compliance with the group is marked by a tendency to notice and emphasize those aspects of the group that are distinctive
C) compliance with one role aids our performance in another role
D) compliance with one role requirement may make it difficult to comply with another
E) compliance with the group is an attempt to understand who we are and how we fit into the world

Question 34

Michael is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Michael would like the promotion, but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. In this situation, Michael is most likely to experience ________.

A) groupshift
B) role fuzziness
C) role conflict
D) social loafing
E) groupthink

Question 35

Jonas Wilkes has struggled for many years with tight finances at home. Throughout school and college, he worked really hard, earned the best grades, and prepared himself for a better life. By a better life, he meant a house in the uptown Wellington Road and a membership in the Diamond District Club where he envisions himself playing golf on weekends. The residents of Wellington Road and the members of Diamond District Club serve as a ________ for him.

A) intervention group
B) nominal group
C) organizational group
D) control group
E) reference group

Question 36

The first phase of group development for temporary groups involves ________.

A) the determination of the group's direction
B) a period of accelerated activity
C) the transition to plan the major changes
D) the phase of inertia before transition
E) the adoption of new perspectives

Question 37

________ refers to the adjustment of one's behavior to align with the norms of the group.

A) Conflict
B) Conformity
C) Deviance
D) Divergence
E) Appearance

Question 38

Which of the following is true with regard to the five-stage group development model?

A) All permanent groups pass through the five stages of this model of group development successively.
B) Groups proceed through the stages of group development in similar speed and timelines.
C) For temporary work teams, the performing stage is the last stage of group development.
D) The model assumes that employees are functioning at their most effective level from the first stage.
E) A positive social focus may aid a group in reaching the performing stage more rapidly.

Question 39

Which of the following statements is true with regard to the punctuated-equilibrium model of group development?

A) It applies to all permanent work groups.
B) It characterizes groups as exhibiting long periods of inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary changes.
C) It involves the two strategies of groupthink and groupshift to break out of the phases of inertia.
D) It does not consider the changes in patterns of group activities in response to deadlines and time constraints.
E) It follows the five stages of forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.

Question 40

A local government work crew cleans up parks and other public spaces. In this crew the dirtiest jobs are generally given to the newest members, while the more senior members of the crew tend to do little except draw their pay. Which of the following classes of norms encompasses arrangements like this?

A) performance norms
B) resource allocation norms
C) leisure norms
D) appearance norms
E) reference norms

Question 41

Group decision making has a disadvantage in the area of ________, when compared to individual decision making.

A) accuracy
B) creativity
C) acceptance of final solutions
D) diversity
E) speed

Question 42

When faced with a number of tight deadlines, Mandy Moore often delegates work collectively. Recently she chose some fairly experienced employees to work on a high-priority project. She was heartened to see that the selected group of employees was having numerous meetings and working hard. However, when she went to check on their progress at the halfway mark in the project schedule, she was shocked to see how little the team had done in the past three weeks. This scenario reflects ________.

A) collective efficacy
B) social loafing
C) in-group favoritism
D) groupshift
E) groupthink

Question 43

Which of the following terms indicates the tendency of individuals to spend less effort when working collectively?

A) groupthink
B) collective efficacy
C) social loafing
D) social facilitation
E) groupshift

Question 44

Which of the following is true with regard to deviant workplace behavior?

A) Research on deviance at the workplace has shown that employees operating individually engage in more deviant behaviors than those who function as a part of groups.
B) It is involuntary in nature.
C) It has a negligible adverse impact on organization as it is accepted by some employees.
D) Widespread deviant workplace behavior depends on the accepted norms of the group.
E) Leaving work early is an example of a property-related deviant workplace behavior.

Question 45

Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of size of the group has on the performance of the group?

A) Evidence indicates that individuals perform better in larger groups than in smaller ones.
B) If the goal of the group is fact-finding then smaller groups are more effective than larger groups.
C) The size of the group does not affect the group's overall behavior.
D) As compared to smaller groups, larger groups are better in problem solving.
E) Evidence indicates that larger groups are faster at completing tasks than smaller ones.

Question 46

Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of group cohesiveness and performance norms on group productivity?

A) When both cohesiveness and performance norms are high, productivity will be high.
B) When cohesiveness is low and performance norms are also low, productivity will be high.
C) If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity will be low.
D) If cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be high.
E) The productivity of the group is affected by the performance norms but not by the cohesiveness of the group.

Question 47

________ is defined as a phenomenon in which the norm for consensus overrides the realistic appraisal of alternative courses of action.

A) In-group favoritism
B) Groupthink
C) Cyber loafing
D) Groupshift
E) Social loafing

Question 48

According to status characteristics theory, which of the following factors does not determine status?

A) talent
B) control over the resources needed by the group
C) ability to conform to group norms
D) personality
E) contribution to goals

Question 49

Which of the following is an advantage of group decision making when compared to individual decision making?

A) increased diversity of views
B) increased conformity pressures
C) increased ambiguous responsibility
D) increased dispersion of accountability
E) increased pace of decision making

Question 50

Which of the following is a contributing factor with regard to social loafing?

A) severe time constraints
B) dispersion of responsibility
C) difficult task assignments
D) high collective efficacy
E) heavy workload

Question 51

Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of status on conformity pressure?

A) Groups exert equal conformity pressure on all individuals regardless of their status.
B) Lower-status people are better able to resist conformity pressures than their high-status peers.
C) As compared to high-status members, low-status members are given a wider range of discretion as long as their activities aren't severely detrimental to group goal achievement.
D) High-status individuals are often given less freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members.
E) People in high-status jobs have especially negative reactions to social pressure exerted by people in low-status jobs.

Question 52

Status refers to the ________.

A) socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others
B) adjustment of one's behavior to align with the norms of the group
C) impact that support of group norms has on workplace civility
D) acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group's members
E) existence of roles that are at variance with one another

Question 53

Which of the following is true with regard to social loafing?

A) Social loafing decreases when rewards are added for collective performance of the group.
B) Social loafing involves the cumulative rise in productivity when teams increase in size.
C) Social loafing reflects the drastic rise in employee performance when they work collectively.
D) Social loafing is witnessed less in collectivist cultures where people take pride in group performance.
E) Social loafing is a result of the emphasis on individual outcomes over shared outcomes.

Question 54

Which of the following terms best represents voluntary actions that violate significant organizational norms and, in doing so, threaten the well-being of the organization or its members?

A) deviant workplace behavior
B) wrongful termination
C) progressive discipline
D) undue hardship
E) antidiscrimination and retaliation

Question 55

Which of the following is an effective means of countering social loafing?

A) increasing the size of the group
B) increasing the rewards the group is given if it succeeds
C) increasing the group's workload
D) ensuring that individual contributions to the group's outcome are identified
E) increasing the amount by which the group's progress is monitored

Question 56

________ is defined as the extent to which members of a group are similar to, or different from, one another.

A) Universality
B) Civility
C) Homogeneity
D) Diversity
E) Conformity

Question 57

________ refers to the degree to which members are attracted to each other and motivated to stay in the group.

A) Cohesiveness
B) Diversity
C) Assertiveness
D) Social dominance
E) Authoritativeness

Question 58

When ________ is of importance in decision making, group decisions are preferred to individual decisions.

A) efficiency
B) acceptance of solution
C) legitimacy
D) speed
E) clear responsibility

Question 59

ICE is a non-profit organization that runs awareness campaigns and research programs that provide data to initiate the process of legislative changes on various aspects of the environment like forest cover, nuclear fuel, endangered species and others. The ICE operates through networks of grass-root level researchers who are grouped into flexible project teams whose roles and duties change with each new project. The ICE believes its employees to be like family and an informal environment pervades its functioning without any compromises being made in the efficiency. Recently, the project manager of the rainwater harvesting pilot project in the suburbs has been informed of two delays in the project. When the third extension request came to him, he looked into the matter by speaking individually with the five team members. Which of the following complaints by the team members, if true, would indicate the presence of social loafing in the team?

A) The team members were dissatisfied with the compensation package as they felt they were putting in a lot of work and being paid relatively less.
B) Nancy, one of the new team members, reported that she felt the team was not cohesive enough.
C) The scarcity of funds was one of the major concerns that all the team members mentioned.
D) Two of the most experienced employees on the team reported having to shoulder a disproportionate amount of the current workload and asked for an internal transfer.
E) A team member complained that the residents of the suburb in which they were working were uncooperative and did not accept their most cordial requests for helping in data collection.

Question 60

Sonia Soans is corporate trainer. One of her favorite ways to start a training program is to present a case study and encourage members to think of the case in depth and discuss it amongst each other. Using the results of the activity she understands the baseline measures of the group's functioning. During one of her recent sessions, she observed that the group came to a consensus very quickly. However, when asked to present their views, the team members were not too confident and appeared to be under an illusion of unanimity. From the scenario, we can say that this group experienced ________.

A) groupshift
B) social loafing
C) groupthink
D) role conflict
E) diversity

Question 61

Which of the following steps can be taken by a manager so as to minimize groupthink?

A) encouraging group leaders to develop a stronger sense of group identity
B) seeking input from employees before the group leader presents his opinions
C) increasing the group size
D) preventing all team members from engaging in a critical evaluation of ideas at the beginning
E) asking the group members to first focus on the positives of an alternative rather than the negatives

Question 62

Which of the following statements is true regarding brainstorming?

A) Brainstorming overcomes the problem of "production blocking."
B) Brainstorming encourages criticizing an idea as early as possible.
C) Research consistently shows that a group in a brainstorming session generates more ideas than an individual working alone.
D) Brainstorming fails to develop group cohesiveness.
E) Brainstorming can overcome the pressures for conformity.

Question 63

The HR department at Bailey Services is considering offering telecommuting as an option to some experienced employees. At a meeting to formalize the move, the heads of the different departments met with Laura Watson, the HR manager. Laura, who thought this meeting would be a short one, was proven wrong when all the members, who had previously agreed that telecommuting would work in their company, began coming up with divergent views. By the end, two divisions claimed having major concerns about allowing employees to telecommute, and those in favor of it were equally vocal. This scenario depicts the operation of ________.

A) role conflict
B) conformity
C) groupshift
D) groupthink
E) social loafing

Question 64

During the forming stage of group development, close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness.

Question 65

In-group favoritism does not adversely affect people of the out-group.

Question 66

A group decision-making method in which individual members meet face-to-face to pool their judgments in a systematic but independent fashion is the ________ technique.

A) brainstorming
B) in-group
C) nominal groups
D) reference groups
E) interacting groups

Question 67

Groupthink is most commonly seen in the group decision-making approach using ________.

A) brainstorming
B) reference groups
C) interacting groups
D) electronic meeting groups
E) nominal groups

Question 68

Hubert Gray needs an instruction manual developed for his new product. This is the last step of the project and he has severe budget constraints. He needs a small team of technical writers to work together closely to write the manual on fairly short notice. He needs them to communicate ideas quickly, creatively, and affordably. Which of the following group techniques should Hubert consider?

A) brainstorming and electronic
B) interacting and brainstorming
C) nominal and electronic
D) brainstorming
E) electronic and interacting

Question 69

Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at EuAir, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome, and even profitably use, this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would denote the occurrence of groupshift in Mark's opinions during the meeting?

A) Mark proposed that the prices be hiked and additional customer service measures be included so costumers have the best experience flying with EuAir.
B) Mark encouraged the top-management team to consider laying off surplus employees and rightsizing EuAir to enhance its efficiency and lower costs.
C) Mark agreed with Joe's opinion that providing the best service possible, even if it meant incurring a loss in the short run, would be the best strategy.
D) Mark felt that EuAir should suspend some of its less profitable flights in the short run in favor of the routes that have greater demand among consumers.
E) Mark proposed that this was an opportunity for EuAir to use its brand name effectively and diversify into other products and services.

Question 70

Like many other marketing strategy specialists, Mark Fritz relies heavily on creativity and originality. Members of his team are selected on the basis of their ability to think divergently, and Mark often conducts activities to ensure that this ability is developed. For instance, before any new project, Mark invites his team to sit together and churn out possible ideas about the new product, its theme, and ways in which it can be projected best in the market. These sessions usually provide him with a bank of potential ideas from which the team selects some strong concepts and develops them into a campaign. To encourage freedom in these sessions, Mark has a no-evaluation policy. This is an example of ________.

A) in-group favoritism
B) groupthink
C) brainstorming
D) groupshift
E) social loafing

Question 71

In discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold. This phenomenon is called ________.

A) groupshift
B) social loafing
C) social desirability bias
D) halo effect
E) in-group favoritism

Question 72

Groupshift is seen when ________.

A) group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold when discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution
B) group members fail to express alternative opinions and deviant views under the influence of the norm for consensus.
C) group members tend to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else's culture over their own
D) group members view themselves in better light when compared to members of the out-group
E) group members notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

Question 73

A batch of trainees has been assigned a new project and the team is unsure of the details of the project and how they will pursue its completion as a group with specific tasks and roles. This batch of trainees is in the forming stage of group development.

Question 74

ABL is one of the largest consumer goods companies in the country and it recently held its annual conference where members of all regional divisions were invited. Since the company is vast and rarely finds all its employees together in such a manner, it used this opportunity to present to them certain new ideas they had regarding various aspects of their functioning. Large meetings with each regional team were held to provide them with information about the proposed changes and to obtain their anonymous votes through computers. This helped the company speed up the decision-making process and consolidate the results immediately. Which of the following group decision techniques did ABL use here?

A) reference groups approach
B) brainstorming
C) nominal groups approach
D) heuristics and algorithm approach
E) electronic meeting approach

Question 75

Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at EuAir, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome and even profitably use this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would denote the occurrence of groupshift in Joe's opinions during the meeting?

A) Joe claimed that aviation fuel was their second largest expense and this was the time to contemplate obtaining a few futures contracts with suppliers.
B) Joe convinced the top management team to decrease the capacity of the flights.
C) Joe proposed that the company should invite price quotes from new suppliers to reduce their dependence on their current fuel suppliers.
D) Joe determined that the best strategy would be to slash prices and minimize all fringes that are used for customer service.
E) Joe recommended that the prices for business class fares be increased as they represent a less price sensitive group of customers.

Question 76

Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at EuAir, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome and even profitably use this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument that Joe experienced groupshift during the meeting?

A) Joe stated that precise methods of fuel filling and consumption must be implemented to efficiently use their current supply of fuel.
B) Joe stated that hiking prices would lead to losing market share to the low-cost airlines which already controlled half the market.
C) Joe stated that the company should cut expenditures on other areas like marketing and advertising instead of hiking fares to retain their current profit margins.
D) Joe proposed the usage of direct and higher altitude routes that would curtail fuel consumption.
E) Joe suggested adding a fuel surcharge to all tickets for commercial flights with immediate effect.

Question 77

Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at EuAir, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome and even profitably use this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument that Mark experienced groupshift in the meeting?

A) Mark was of the opinion that oil suppliers were going to pressure them even more in the future and the company had to resort to alternatives like bio fuels.
B) Mark believed that most of their clientele was not price sensitive.
C) Mark felt that implementing a price rise was necessary to recover the costs in operating the flights.
D) Mark recommended that the company should establish a fuel hedging contract with its key suppliers to ensure protection from fuel price rises.
E) Mark stated that the company should increase operations but at lower fares so they can regain control over the market share.

Question 78

Bonnie Patterson is a manager for seven years at Wayne and Watson, a legal consultancy firm. A good part of her work day involves holding meetings and she likes to get work on a time-bound schedule. For this reason, members of her team receive the agenda at the beginning of the meeting, followed by some time to contemplate over the issue at hand individually. Subsequently, the team members present their ideas one after the another, the group discusses them together, and lastly, a ranking is done to choose the most favored idea. This represents the ________ approach of group decision making.

A) nominal group
B) groupthink
C) brainstorming
D) reference group
E) interacting

Question 79

The social identity theory proposes that people use groups to understand who they are and how they fit into the world.

Question 80

The development of temporary work groups is best understood in terms of the five-stage group development model.