Deck 14: Hypersensitivity

Question 1

An example of a condition that involves type III hypersensitivity is:

A) myasthenia gravis.
B) allergic rhinitis.
C) contact sensitivity.
D) rheumatoid arthritis.

Answer 1

rheumatoid arthritis.

Question 2

The precipitation of immune complexes in small blood vessels under the skin that occurs when antigen is injected in an animal with large amounts of circulating antibody describes which of the following?

A) Serum sickness
B) Arthus reaction
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Delayed hypersensitivity

Answer 2

Arthus reaction

Question 3

The principal difference between type II and type III hypersensitivity reactions is:

A) the isotype of the antibody involved.
B) complement-mediated lysis of host cells.
C) whether the antigen is cellular or soluble.
D) involvement of helper T cells and macrophages.

Answer 3

whether the antigen is cellular or soluble.

Question 4

What immune phenomenon is responsible for the muscle weakness associated with myasthenia gravis?

A) Binding of antibody to a receptor on muscle cells
B) Muscle cell destruction by cytotoxic T cells
C) Deposition of immune complexes in the muscles
D) Release of histamine from mast cells in the muscles

Question 5

Reaction to poison ivy is which type of hypersensitivity?

A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV

Question 6

A hypersensitivity reaction characterized by the presence of IgG that reacts with soluble antigen best describes:

A) type III hypersensitivity.
B) contact dermatitis.
C) type II hypersensitivity.
D) asthma.

Question 7

Anaphylactic reactions are mediated by:

A) mast cells.
B) lymphocytes.
C) macrophages.
D) natural killer cells.

Question 8

A 5-year-old girl was rushed to the emergency department because she was having trouble breathing.She had been playing at the park when she fell down and her face and neck started to swell up.One of her friends thought that the girl might have been stung by a bee because a bee was flying around them,and shortly before the girl fell to the ground,she had screamed.The girl had a large red bump on her cheek.This girl likely has:

A) Bruton's hypogammaglobulinemia.
B) type I diabetes.
C) type I hypersensitivity.
D) type IV hypersensitivity.

Question 9

Preformed mediators that are released during the activation phase of a type I hypersensitivity response include which of the following?

A) Histamine
B) Cyclooxygenase
C) Leukotriene
D) Prostaglandin

Question 10

Reactions to antigens in natural rubber (latex)can trigger:

A) type I and type II hypersensitivity.
B) type II and type III hypersensitivity.
C) type III and type IV hypersensitivity.
D) type I and type IV hypersensitivity.

Question 11

All of the hypersensitivity responses have which of the following in common?

A) Involvement of antibody
B) Asymptomatic sensitization phase
C) Release of histamine
D) Activation of macrophage against a pathogen.

Question 12

Which of the following diseases is an example of a type II hypersensitivity?

A) Anaphylaxis
B) Myasthenia gravis
C) Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
D) Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

Question 13

Hypersensitivities to poison ivy and nickel are:

A) mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies.
B) immunodeficiency diseases.
C) IgE responses to a hapten.
D) macrophage and T-cell responses to a hapten.

Question 14

Type I hypersensitivity can be treated by injecting a specific recombinant humanized IgG called omalizumab.This antibody:

A) binds allergens, preventing them from binding patient IgE.
B) occupies Fc receptors on mast cells, preventing binding by patient IgE.
C) binds to a heavy-chain domain on patient IgE, preventing the IgE from binding to mast cells.
D) inhibits Th2 cells that would otherwise promote excess IgE production.

Question 15

The normal activity of a type I hypersensitivity response is protection primarily against which of the following?

A) Parasites
B) Viruses
C) Bacteria
D) Fungi

Question 16

Which isotype of immunoglobulin is involved in a type I hypersensitivity?

A) IgE
B) IgA
C) IgG
D) IgM

Question 17

Type I hypersensitivity involves:

A) IgE binding to mast cells and basophils.
B) phagocytic cell degranulation and proteolytic enzyme activity.
C) a kidney membrane antigen and specific antibody.
D) natural killer cell activation.

Question 18

Immune injury resulting from the localization of immune complexes in blood vessels and tissues describes which hypersensitivity reaction?

A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV

Question 19

Which of the following occurs in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A) IgE builds up on the mother's cells.
B) The Rh- mother is exposed to Rh+ baby cells.
C) The Rh+ mother is exposed to Rh- baby cells.
D) The baby must be Rh-.

Question 20

A 10-year-old girl has been experiencing symptoms of nasal congestion,watery eyes,and sneezing for the past 2 years.Percutaneous testing revealed that she was allergic to a number of antigens,including ragweed,grasses,dust mites,and cat dander.Treatment with over-the-counter drugs did not do much to alleviate her symptoms,which seemed to worsen with time.Her doctor prescribed allergy immunotherapy,and her symptoms began to improve over the next year.This therapy is thought to work through the administration of:

A) anti-IgE monoclonal antibody, which binds to circulating IgE in the bloodstream.
B) anti-IgE monoclonal antibody to prevent further synthesis of IgE by the patient.
C) gradually increasing doses of the allergen over time to induce production of blocking IgG4 antibodies.
D) gradually increasing doses of the allergen over time to shift the immune response toward allergen-specific IgM antibodies.

Question 21

Compared with percutaneous (prick)tests,intradermal skin tests:

A) are more sensitive.
B) require less antigen.
C) carry less risk.
D) are better for diagnosing food allergies.

Question 22

Which immune mechanism is involved in contact dermatitis?

A) Presence of circulating IgE
B) Deposition of immune complexes
C) Activation of complement
D) Sensitization of cytotoxic T cells

Question 23

Anaphylaxis is characterized by which of the following?

A) Degranulation of mast cells
B) Production of IgG
C) T-cell mediators
D) All of the above

Question 24

By gradually increasing doses of an allergen over time,allergy immunotherapy is thought to:

A) inhibit Th1 response.
B) induce Th2 cell development.
C) induce Treg cell development.
D) block allergen-specific IgG.

Question 25

Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?

A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV

Question 26

Contact dermatitis can be characterized by:

A) formation of antigen-antibody complexes.
B) immediate sensitization of Th1 cells.
C) Langerhans cells acting as antigen-presenting cells.
D) decreased cytokine production.

Question 27

The purified protein derivative reaction to determine exposure to tuberculosis is based on which of the following?

A) Formation of antigen-antibody complexes
B) An immediate hypersensitivity reaction
C) A sensitized T-cell response
D) A type II hypersensitivity reaction

Question 28

To determine if a patient is allergic to peanuts,the best test to perform is:

A) allergen-specific IgE.
B) total serum IgE.
C) serum protein electrophoresis.
D) RID to measure IgG.

Question 29

A 37-year-old woman received two units of packed red blood cells following a surgical procedure.She had been transfused once before.Five days after surgery,she experienced a slight fever and some hemoglobin in her urine,indicating a delayed transfusion reaction.A direct antiglobulin test on a blood sample was positive.Which of the following statements best describes this reaction?

A) The patient had IgM antibody to the red cells transfused.
B) The patient's reaction was the result of an amnestic response.
C) Only IgE was coating the transfused red blood cells.
D) The antibody present reacted best at room temperature.

Question 30

A direct antiglobulin test is ordered on a patient sample.This test detects:

A) in vivo attachment of antibodies to red blood cells.
B) allergic reaction.
C) passive agglutination.
D) naturally occurring antibodies.

Question 31

Complement is responsible for tissue damage in which of the following reactions?

A) Immediate hypersensitivity
B) Type III hypersensitivity
C) Delayed hypersensitivity
D) Anaphylaxis

Question 32

An exaggerated reaction directed against an antigen that is harmless is called:

A) atopy.
B) hypersensitivity.
C) immune complex disease.
D) passive cutaneous anaphylaxis.

Question 33

A positive direct antiglobulin test might indicate:

A) autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
B) an allergic reaction.
C) a mismatch of a transplant.
D) rheumatoid arthritis.

Question 34

T cell-dependent hypersensitivity occurs:

A) 24 to 72 hours after exposure to the antigen.
B) immediately after exposure to the antigen.
C) 5 to 7 days after contact with antigen.
D) 1 to 4 hours after contact with antigen.

Question 35

Which newly synthesized mediator has a mode of action similar to that of histamine?

A) LTB4
B) Heparin
C) ECF-A
D) PGD?

Question 36

Which of the following is characteristic of autoimmune hemolytic anemia caused by cold agglutinins?

A) It is a type I hypersensitivity reaction.
B) It is the most common cause of autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
C) The IgM antibodies are specific to Ii blood groups.
D) The reaction is irreversible.