Deck 12: Project Management and Strategic Planning

Question 1

Scope creep refers to a strategy in which everyone in a project team agrees upon what features the project will involve.

Answer 1

False

Question 2

It is good practice for project managers to spend more time on the executing processes than any other processes.

Answer 2

False

Question 3

A key document that authorizes the project is the project charter which shows that the project has the commitment and support of senior management.

Answer 3

True

Question 4

The closing phase of a project should also include a process that documents the lessons learned from the project.

Question 5

Disaster recovery refers to all the procedures, documentation, and resources the organization puts into place to prepare for a disaster and recover the technical infrastructure.

Question 6

Executing processes involve coordinating efforts that ensure the tasks on the work breakdown structure are carried out properly.

Question 7

A project is a temporary activity that is launched for a specific purpose, to carry out a particular objective.

Question 8

Lack of customization and high stakeholder involvement are amongst some of the most cited reasons for project failure.

Question 9

Deliverables refer to the products, documents, or services that will be delivered to the sponsor during the course of the project.

Question 10

The acceptable-use policy covers laws on harassment, fraudulent use, and any attempts to disrupt information systems or circumvent authentication.

Question 11

A project charter ensures that there is no scope for change in the later phases of a project and thus helps avoiding scope creep.

Question 12

Every project is constrained by three fundamental, interrelated forces: time, cost, and scope.

Question 13

Escalation of commitment refers to the tendency of people to increase features in a project in order to accommodate excess resources.

Question 14

Introduction of new information systems involves change when some processes are drastically revised or eliminated through business process management efforts.

Question 15

Change management refers to a structured approach to the transition employees must make as they switch from their existing work processes to new ones.

Question 16

Binding, formal agreements with vendors and consultants are essential to the success of a project.

Question 17

Business continuity refers to the willingness of an organization to pull the plug on a project in which huge sums and resources need to be invested.

Question 18

The planning processes lay the groundwork for the project by clarifying the value it will bring to the organization, setting its objectives, and estimating the project's length, scope, and cost.

Question 19

The critical path in a Gantt chart is the shortest path through the project and identifies those tasks that can be delayed without affecting the finish date.

Question 20

A difference between projects and processes is that processes are unique, whereas projects are recurring.

Question 21

A confirmation bias is a rare human tendency to believe that an event was predictable even if it was not.

Question 22

The ________ lays the groundwork for the project by clarifying the value it will bring to the organization, setting its objectives, and estimating the project's length, scope, and cost.

A) controlling process
B) initiating process
C) planning process
D) executing process

Question 23

Which of the following is an accurate definition of a project?

A) a temporary activity to carry out a particular objective
B) a series of events designed to deliver a product
C) a long-term commitment toward creating tangible value
D) a recurring sequence of events that facilitate the creation of a service

Question 24

The stage at which a project is conceived is known as the ________ process.

A) initiating
B) planning
C) monitoring
D) controlling

Question 25

Which of the following is a characteristic of a process?

A) a specific, unique purpose
B) elements of uncertainty
C) temporary endeavor
D) recurring in nature

Question 26

Which of the following is a difference between projects and processes?

A) Projects are permanent in nature whereas processes are temporary.
B) Projects are unique and one of a kind whereas processes are recurring in nature.
C) Projects need to be tweaked so that the underlying activities are streamlined whereas processes involve uncertainty.
D) Projects have broadly defined non-specific goals whereas processes have specific goals.

Question 27

Which of the following functions does a project charter perform?

A) measuring the outcomes of the project
B) assessing the progress of the project
C) stating the reasoning behind initiating the project
D) estimating start and end dates for the project

Question 28

A black swan refers to those favorable, external events which contribute to an organization's growth.

Question 29

A ________ helps to avoid unexpected surprises in the execution stage, but still leaves room for changes to best meet the organization's needs.

A) burn down chart
B) project charter
C) business proposal
D) business case

Question 30

How does a project charter help in managing a project?

A) defines project metrics very clearly so there is no scope for change midway through project execution
B) helps make the project management process more informal and fosters greater collaboration
C) tracks the progress of the project and sets benchmarks for the project team to achieve
D) avoids unexpected surprises and leaves room for changes to meet organization's needs

Question 31

Which of the following is true of the triple constraint in projects?

A) The time constraint is the most critical of the three constraints in projects.
B) The three fundamentals that are known to constrain projects are insulated from each other.
C) Changes in one fundamental constraint force changes in the other constraints as well.
D) Cost constraints take precedence over time and scope constraints in all projects.

Question 32

A ________ is a series of events designed to deliver a product or service that is recurring in nature.

A) process
B) milestone
C) project
D) task

Question 33

A(n) ________ is an initiating process where stakeholders meet one another, sometimes for the first and only time.

A) kickoff meeting
B) board meeting
C) pre-bid meeting
D) annual general meeting

Question 34

Which of the following best describes a project charter?

A) a formal written offer from a client to a prospective project vendor
B) a document that tracks the progress of a project
C) a key document that authorizes a project
D) an informal document that assesses the effectiveness of a project

Question 35

The stage at which early phase managers identify the major players in the project, including the sponsor, the project manager, the team members, and other stakeholders, is known as a(n) ________.

A) executing process
B) initiating process
C) monitoring process
D) controlling process

Question 36

A(n) ________ is a temporary activity that is launched for a specific purpose, to carry out a particular objective.

A) project
B) business method
C) process
D) milestone

Question 37

Which among the following is the best example of a project?

A) backing up organizational data
B) performing information system maintenance
C) updating software programs
D) opening a new branch office

Question 38

Which of the following sets of processes is carried out first in project management?

A) executing process
B) initiating process
C) implementing process
D) monitoring process

Question 39

A ________ is a document that authorizes a project that includes a clear statement of objectives, estimated start and end dates, the names of the relevant people and their roles, a tentative budget, criteria for success, and other pertinent information.

A) project charter
B) burn down chart
C) business case
D) project proposal

Question 40

A kick-off meeting involves ________.

A) project stakeholders meeting one another to review the project charter
B) the project manager assessing the outcomes of the project and measuring its effectiveness
C) the project team convening together to submit a proposal for a project
D) the project team meeting together at preset intervals to assess the project's progress

Question 41

Which of the following best defines predecessors in a work breakdown structure?

A) the tasks that are carried for a long period of time, side by side with new tasks
B) the tasks that need to be completed before a particular task can begin
C) the new tasks that are undertaken right after a long overdue task is completed
D) the tasks that are undertaken as a continuation of older incomplete tasks

Question 42

Which of the following tools helps keep a project on track to meet its deadlines by listing tasks on a work breakdown schedule?

A) Smith chart
B) Nolan chart
C) Gantt chart
D) PERT network chart

Question 43

A ________ lists tasks on the work breakdown structure, along with each task's projected start and finish dates, in graphical format.

A) cluster diagram
B) Gantt chart
C) PERT network chart
D) conceptual graph

Question 44

Which of the following represents tasks undertaken by an efficient project manager?

A) spending more time on planning than executing processes
B) undertaking most of the tasks by themselves
C) focusing most of their energies and duration on project execution
D) allocating more time for training and conducting research

Question 45

Which of the following areas of project management involves a work breakdown structure?

A) scope management
B) cost management
C) risk management
D) quality management

Question 46

The term ________ refers to the way in which features are added in an uncontrolled way, often without considering the impact on the budget or timeline.

A) cone of uncertainty
B) scope creep
C) risk appetite
D) conceptual fusion

Question 47

________ in project management include all the coordinating efforts that ensure that tasks on the work breakdown structure are carried out properly.

A) Initiating processes
B) Designing processes
C) Planning processes
D) Executing processes

Question 48

A(n) ________ is a document which clarifies the features included in the project and provides a work breakdown structure.

A) executive summary
B) business case
C) scope statement
D) mission statement

Question 49

The ________ process in project management focuses on devising how the project will be executed.

A) monitoring
B) planning
C) controlling
D) closing

Question 50

________ track progress from start to finish, pinpointing any deviations from the plan.

A) Initiating processes
B) Executing processes
C) Planning processes
D) Monitoring and controlling processes

Question 51

In the ________ phase, project managers pay close attention to reports and dashboards that might show early warning signs that some tasks have fallen behind.

A) initiating
B) executing
C) monitoring
D) planning

Question 52

A(n) ________ in a work breakdown structure refers to a task that needs to be completed before a particular task can begin.

A) subtask
B) successor
C) concurrent
D) predecessor

Question 53

Which of the following best describes deliverables in a project?

A) products, documents, or services that will be handed over to the sponsor
B) standards expected by a client from the project team
C) guidelines that a manager formulates for a team to follow
D) resources needed for smooth execution of a project

Question 54

In which of the following areas of a project is a work breakdown structure used?

A) communications management
B) quality management
C) risk management
D) scope assessment

Question 55

________ refer to products, documents, or services that will be handed over to the sponsor during the course of the project.

A) Resources
B) Standards
C) Deliverables
D) Benchmarks

Question 56

In which of the following project management areas is a Gantt chart most likely to be used?

A) scope assessment
B) time management
C) human resource management
D) risk management

Question 57

A(n) ________ is an orderly listing of actual tasks that a project team must complete to produce the project's deliverables.

A) work breakdown structure
B) business case
C) executive summary
D) mission statement

Question 58

Which of the following best defines a critical path in a project?

A) the shortest path through a project undertaken to achieve a fixed deadline
B) the longest project path that identifies tasks that cannot be delayed without affecting the finish date
C) the path that takes into account all possible factors that can delay a project to estimate a deadline
D) the shortest path undertaken in a monitoring process in which there is no fixed deadline

Question 59

Which of the following best describes a scope creep?

A) a method of keeping track of a project's progress unobtrusively
B) the way in which project features are added in an uncontrolled way
C) the process through which a project's deliverables can be achieved much ahead of a deadline
D) a method of assessing the resource requirements for a project

Question 60

Which of the following is an example of an executing process?

A) defining milestones and goals
B) allocating work assignments
C) fixing project schedules
D) identifying deliverables

Question 61

The tendency to continue investing in a project, despite mounting evidence that it is not succeeding, often comes about because people mistakenly let sunk costs affect decision making rather than weighing the value of further investment is known as ________.

A) zero-profit condition
B) escalation of commitment
C) progress trap
D) zero-sum game

Question 62

A real estate developer in the New Jersey area purchases a large tract of land and plans to build a condominium, plus a golf course and other amenities. The developer hopes to have sold all condos to the upwardly mobile software industry employees in the area. Halfway through the project, the recession hits the nation and people lose jobs. There are no takers for the condos the developer is building, as homebuyers look at less expensive options at a time when they wish to guard their savings very closely. The developer, however, dismayed at the huge investment he has already made in the project, decides that it would be unwise to stop the project and plans to go ahead with it. The developer's rationale is consistent with the idea of ________.

A) progress trap
B) post-purchase rationalization
C) buyer's remorse
D) escalation of commitment

Question 63

Which of the following should a project manager ideally do to efficiently manage a project?

A) commit to delivering features that stakeholders are expecting even if timelines are narrow
B) allow end-users to learn from their mistakes instead of hand-holding after launch
C) avoid making unpopular decisions that might dismay the sponsor or clients
D) communicate the time, cost, and scope constraints clearly as the project unfolds

Question 64

Which of the following is a critical factor that causes the failure of projects?

A) limited scope
B) low customization
C) high stakeholder involvement
D) unrealistic time frames

Question 65

A(n) ________ phase ideally involves wrapping a project in an orderly way and a sponsor signing off that all deliverables have been received and accepted.

A) implementing
B) planning
C) closing
D) executing

Question 66

Which of the following is a feature of a project's closing process?

A) identifying deliverables and components needed to achieve success
B) allocating work assignments and monitoring progress of the team
C) negotiating contracts and conducting research to achieve results
D) signing off deliverables by the sponsor that have been accepted

Question 67

One of the critical factors that contribute to the failure of projects is ________.

A) the limited scope of the project
B) the lack of executive support for the project
C) the low requirement for customization
D) the high stakeholder involvement in the project

Question 68

A company requires its employees to include a certain disclaimer in their e-mails that states that the company is not responsible if recipients of e-mails rely on the advice provided by the employees. What potential threat does such a disclaimer protect the company from?

A) implied contractual obligations
B) transmission of viruses
C) negligent misstatements
D) employee misuse

Question 69

Which of the following best defines escalation of commitment?

A) the tendency to invest in a project when it offers increasing returns over a period of time
B) the tendency of employees to increase productivity at work when provided with incentives
C) the tendency of employees to quit an organization when their needs are being disregarded
D) the tendency to continue to invest in a project despite mounting evidence that it is not succeeding

Question 70

The ________ phase in a project involves documenting lessons learned from the project, so the experience can benefit other project teams and add to the organization's knowledge base.

A) executing
B) planning
C) closing
D) initiating

Question 71

________ is a structured approach for the transition employees must make as they switch from their existing work processes to new ones.

A) Change management
B) Total quality management
C) Project portfolio management
D) Business process management

Question 72

Which of the following best describes project portfolio management?

A) a process that oversees all projects and selects which projects to pursue
B) a process that integrates a company's project with a prospective external project
C) a process that creates and visualizes projects from scratch
D) a process that tracks the progress of projects and adjusts their scope accordingly

Question 73

Which of the following best defines change management?

A) an approach to streamlining work processes to maintain universal codes
B) an approach which brings new employees in an organization up to date with work processes
C) an approach to the transition employees make as they switch from existing work to new processes
D) an approach to project management that ensures that project stakeholders do not deviate from the defined project objectives

Question 74

The ________ lays out rules about what employees are allowed to do with IT resources and what activities are disallowed.

A) executive summary
B) acceptable-use policy
C) project charter
D) business case

Question 75

Which of the following is a challenge faced in the closing phase of a project?

A) motivating project stakeholders
B) documenting lessons learned
C) creating a work breakdown structure
D) implementing mitigation strategies

Question 76

Which of the following is a success factor for projects?

A) involvement and buy-in from a niche segment of end users
B) a strategy to manage conflicts among stakeholders
C) design strategy that helps isolate existing and old legacy systems from new systems
D) informal agreements with consultants and vendors to build trust

Question 77

The ________ encompasses services each employee will be provided, whether and how much they can utilize company resources for personal use, the kinds of surveillance that are in place, and reinforce legal requirements, such as prohibitions against unauthorized copying.

A) executive summary
B) acceptable-use policy
C) project charter
D) business case

Question 78

The ________ is a continuous process that oversees all the projects for an organization, selecting which projects to pursue and culling those projects that have a poor prognosis.

A) total quality management
B) business process outsourcing
C) project portfolio management
D) change management

Question 79

When an employee's e-mail might contain wording that implies a firm contract, a disclaimer for implied contractual obligations ________.

A) states that any contract must be confirmed by the employee's manager
B) warns recipients against disclosing information contained in the e-mail
C) warns recipients that they are responsible for checking the message for malicious content
D) includes wording that the message is intended only for the addressee

Question 80

The ________ refers to the longest course through the project, which identifies those tasks that can't be delayed without affecting the finish date.

A) clustering coefficient
B) critical path
C) long tail
D) project map