Deck 11: Interactions Between Microbes and Humans

Question 1

Virulence factors include all the following except ________.

A) capsules
B) ribosomes
C) exoenzymes
D) endotoxins
E) exotoxins

Answer 1

ribosomes

Question 2

Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are

A) in food.
B) the patient's own normal biota.
C) on fomites.
D) in the air.
E) transmitted from one person to another.

Answer 2

the patient's own normal biota.

Question 3

Which of the following is not a factor that weakens host defenses against infections?

A) Genetic defects in immunity
B) Physical and mental stress
C) Strong, healthy body
D) Chemotherapy
E) Old age

Answer 3

Strong, healthy body

Question 4

Which of the following is not an antiphagocytic factor?

A) Secretion of slime
B) Production of leukocidins
C) Adhering to the host
D) Secretion of a capsule
E) Ability to survive intracellularly

Question 5

The term infection refers to

A) microorganisms colonizing the body.
B) contact with microorganisms.
C) contact with pathogens.
D) pathogens penetrating host defenses.
E) None of the choices are correct.

Question 6

Once a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood cells will attempt to destroy the microbes?

A) Phagocytosis
B) Adhesion
C) Encapsulation
D) Margination
E) Exocytosis

Question 7

The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the ________.

A) respiratory system
B) gastrointestinal system
C) urinary system
D) genital system
E) skin

Question 8

Which of the following is not a method of adhesion?

A) Fimbriae
B) Surface proteins
C) Specialized receptors
D) Adhesive slime or capsules
E) Cilia

Question 9

Resident biota are found in/on the ________.

A) skin
B) mouth
C) nasal passages
D) large intestine
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 10

Which terminology is not used to describe members of the resident biota?

A) Pathogenic biota
B) Normal biota
C) Indigenous biota
D) Normal microbiota
E) Commensals

Question 11

Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called ________.

A) opportunistic pathogens
B) normal biota
C) indigenous biota
D) true pathogens
E) micropathogens

Question 12

The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal biota

A) before birth, in utero.
B) during and immediately after birth.
C) when a child first goes to school.
D) when an infant gets its first infectious disease.
E) during puberty.

Question 13

Opportunistic pathogens

A) cause disease in every individual.
B) cause disease in compromised individuals.
C) are always pathogens.
D) have well-developed virulence factors.
E) None of the choices is correct.

Question 14

The minimum amount of microbes in the inoculating dose is the ________.

A) virulence factor
B) indigenous biota
C) infectious dose
D) endotoxin
E) minimal dose

Question 15

An infectious agent that originates from outside the body is called ________.

A) exogenous
B) an exotoxin
C) an enterotoxin
D) endogenous
E) axenic

Question 16

The effect of "good" microbes against invading microbes is called ________.

A) microbial antagonism
B) endogenous infection
C) infectious disease
D) axenic
E) gnotobiotism

Question 17

Infection occurs when

A) contaminants are present on the skin.
B) a person swallows microbes in/on food.
C) a person inhales microbes in the air.
D) pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues.
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 18

An infectious agent already existing on or in the body is called ________.

A) exogenous
B) an exotoxin
C) an enterotoxin
D) endogenous
E) axenic

Question 19

Normal biota includes each of the following except ________.

A) bacteria
B) fungi
C) protozoans
D) viruses
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 20

Each of the following bring about inoculation of normal biota to a newborn except ________.

A) the birth process through the birth canal
B) bottle feeding
C) breast feeding
D) contact with hospital staff
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 21

Hyaluronidase is a virulence factor in ________.

A) amoebic dysentery
B) ringworm
C) clostridia
D) cold virus
E) diphtheria

Question 22

Enterotoxins are ________.

A) virulence factors
B) toxins that target the intestines
C) proteins
D) exotoxins
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 23

________ are toxins that are the lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls.

A) Exotoxins
B) Endotoxins
C) Enterotoxins
D) Leukocidins
E) Hemolysins

Question 24

Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of ________.

A) adhesive factors
B) exotoxins
C) hemolysins
D) antiphagocytic factors
E) exoenzymes

Question 25

A symptom is ________.

A) an objective indication of disease
B) a subjective indication of disease
C) measurable by health care personnel
D) temperature
E) None of the choices are correct.

Question 26

The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is the ________.

A) prodromal stage
B) convalescent stage
C) incubation period
D) period of invasion
E) None of the choices are correct.

Question 27

Which of the following is the endotoxin?

A) Hemolysin
B) Hyaluronidase
C) Streptokinase
D) Collagenase
E) Lipopolysaccharide

Question 28

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites
B) Mixed infection - several agents established at infection site
C) Acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms
D) Local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site
E) Toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues

Question 29

Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of ________.

A) toxemia
B) inflammation
C) sequelae
D) a syndrome
E) latency

Question 30

The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed a(n) ________.

A) syndrome
B) symptom
C) sign
D) pathology
E) inflammation

Question 31

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) Fimbriae - adherence to substrate
B) Capsules - antiphagocytic factor
C) Coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots
D) Leukocidins - damage white blood cells
E) Hemolysins - damage red blood cells

Question 32

Exotoxins

A) are secreted by pathogenic organisms.
B) are bound to the membrane of pathogenic organisms.
C) are bound to the cell wall of pathogenic organisms.
D) cause more damage than endotoxins.
E) are host specific.

Question 33

The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed a(n) ________.

A) syndrome
B) symptom
C) sign
D) pathology
E) inflammation

Question 34

The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the ________.

A) prodromal stage
B) convalescent stage
C) incubation period
D) period of invasion
E) None of the choices are correct.

Question 35

The suffix -emia means ________.

A) blood
B) a disease or morbid process
C) an inflammation
D) tumor
E) pertaining to

Question 36

Exotoxins are ________.

A) proteins.
B) only released after a cell is damaged or lysed.
C) antiphagocytic factors.
D) secretions that always target nervous tissue.
E) lipopolysaccharides.

Question 37

The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches is the ________.

A) prodromal stage
B) convalescent stage
C) incubation period
D) period of invasion
E) None of the choices are correct.

Question 38

________ are bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots.

A) Coagulases
B) Mucinases
C) Keratinases
D) Kinases
E) Hyaluronidases

Question 39

Mucinase has the greatest effect on the ________.

A) respiratory system
B) gastrointestinal system
C) urinary system
D) genital system
E) skin

Question 40

An endotoxin is

A) secreted by pathogenic organisms.
B) indicative of gram-negative organisms.
C) indicative of gram-positive organisms.
D) indicative of fungal infections.
E) indicative of viral infections.

Question 41

________ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogens a long time after they have recovered from an infectious disease.

A) Asymptomatic
B) Passive
C) Incubation
D) Chronic
E) Convalescent

Question 42

Which of the following is not a normal portal of exit for an infectious disease?

A) Removal of blood
B) Urogenital tract and feces
C) Coughing and sneezing
D) Skin
E) All of these are normal exit portals.

Question 43

A ________ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans.

A) secondary infection
B) sequelae
C) nosocomial infection
D) zoonosis
E) None of the choices are correct.

Question 44

An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a ________.

A) fomite
B) carrier
C) vector
D) reservoir
E) source

Question 45

Long-term or permanent damage to tissues or organs resulting from a specific disease are called ________.

A) symptoms
B) sequelae
C) infections
D) latencies
E) dormancies

Question 46

A sign is

A) an objective indication of disease.
B) a subjective indication of disease.
C) measurable by health care personnel.
D) temperature.
E) Both objective indication of disease and measurable by health care personnel are correct.

Question 47

Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a ________.

A) fomite
B) carrier
C) vector
D) reservoir
E) source

Question 48

Which of the following is a direct contact method of microbe transmission?

A) Fomites
B) Water
C) Vectors
D) Aerosols
E) Droplets

Question 49

Reservoirs include ________.

A) humans
B) animals
C) soil
D) water
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 50

Which of the following is an example of sequelae?

A) Headache from meningitis
B) Difficulty swallowing from a Streptococcus infection
C) Arthritis from Lyme disease
D) Diarrhea from Salmonella enteritidis infection
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 51

A ________ is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood.

A) bacteremia
B) septicemia
C) viremia
D) toxemia
E) None of the choices are correct.

Question 52

Which of the following is transmission of disease from mother to fetus?

A) Vertical
B) Direct
C) Vector
D) Horizontal
E) Fomites

Question 53

The intermediary object or individual from which the infectious agent is actually acquired is termed the ________.

A) fomite
B) carrier
C) vector
D) reservoir
E) source

Question 54

Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are ________.

A) fomites
B) aerosols
C) mechanical vectors
D) droplet nuclei
E) biological vectors

Question 55

Leukopenia is the ________ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.

A) elevation
B) stabilization
C) decrease

Question 56

An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a ________.

A) fomite
B) carrier
C) vector
D) reservoir
E) source

Question 57

All infectious diseases ________.

A) are contagious
B) occur only in humans
C) are caused by microorganisms or their products
D) are caused by vectors
E) involve viruses as the pathogen

Question 58

________ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogens while they are recovering from an infectious disease.

A) Asymptomatic
B) Passive
C) Incubation
D) Chronic
E) Convalescent

Question 59

Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called ________.

A) syndromes
B) malaises
C) inflammation
D) asymptomatic
E) secondary infections

Question 60

The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the ________.

A) fomite
B) carrier
C) vector
D) reservoir
E) source

Question 61

When an infected person is in the incubation period, that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others.

Question 62

A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a particular geographic location is ________.

A) an epidemic
B) endemic
C) pandemic
D) sporadic
E) chronic

Question 63

Latency is a dormant state of an infectious agent.

Question 64

The virulence factors of a pathogen are established by how strong or weak a patient's body defenses are at the time of infection.

Question 65

Nosocomial infections involve all the following except

A) they are only transmitted by medical personnel.
B) they often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions.
C) the patient's resident biota can be the infectious agent.
D) Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents.
E) medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence.

Question 66

The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is ________.

A) pathology
B) clinical microbiology
C) medicine
D) immunology
E) epidemiology

Question 67

Which of the following is not a universal precaution used for handling patients and body substances?

A) Mask and gloves
B) Proper disposal of needles
C) Health care worker with active lesions handling patients
D) Hand washing
E) Sterilizing or disinfecting dental hand pieces

Question 68

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention assigns the most virulent microbes known to cause human disease to biosafety level 4.

Question 69

The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease is the ________ rate.

A) morbidity
B) mortality
C) incidence
D) endemic
E) pandemic

Question 70

Under certain circumstances, members of a person's resident biota can become opportunistic pathogens.

Question 71

The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the ________.

A) mortality rate
B) morbidity rate
C) incidence rate
D) prevalence rate
E) epidemic rate

Question 72

Koch's postulates are easily satisfied for viral diseases.

Question 73

What is one goal of the Human Microbiota Project?

A) To sequence the DNA of all microorganisms
B) To study the prevalence of disease
C) To study microorganisms in their natural habitat
D) To provide comprehensive characterization of microbiota relating to human health and disease
E) To discover new organisms in extreme habitats

Question 74

The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the ________.

A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
B) World Health Organization
C) National Institutes of Health
D) United States Department of Agriculture
E) Infection Control Committee

Question 75

Fomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens.

Question 76

The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the ________ rate.

A) morbidity
B) mortality
C) incidence
D) endemic
E) pandemic

Question 77

Septicemia means that a pathogen is present and multiplying in the blood.

Question 78

When would Koch's postulates be utilized?

A) Determination of the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab
B) Development of a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab
C) Determination of the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab
D) Formulation of a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab
E) Whenever the scientific method cannot be used to investigate a microbiological problem

Question 79

A fetus can get an infection when a pathogen in the mother's blood is capable of crossing the placenta to the fetal circulation and tissues.

Question 80

Most of the skin's resident biota are found in the uppermost, superficial layers of the epidermis.