Deck 9: The Nervous System: Central Nervous System

Question 1

Which of the following protects the soft tissues of the brain?

A) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
B) the meninges
C) the cranium
D) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and the cranium
E) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), the meninges, and the cranium

Answer 1

E

Question 2

Alzheimer's disease is caused by the loss of neurons in certain brain areas and replacement of the lost neurons with scar tissue called .

A) cholinergic : plaques
B) muscarinic : myelin
C) cholinergic : myelin
D) adrenergic : plaques
E) adrenergic : myelin

Answer 2

A

Question 3

What type of glial cell is necessary for normal development of the blood -brain barrier?

A) ependymal cells
B) Schwann cells
C) microglia
D) astrocytes
E) oligodendrocytes

Answer 3

D

Question 4

What type of glial cells plays a critical role in maintaining extracellular potassium levels?

A) oligodendrocytes
B) ependymal cells
C) astrocytes
D) Schwann cells
E) microglia

Question 5

What type of glial cell is a phagocyte?

A) Schwann cell
B) ependymal cell
C) microglia
D) astrocyte
E) oligodendrocyte

Question 6

What are the fibers that connect the cortical regions on one side of the brain with the corresponding cortical region on the other side of the brain?

A) projection fibers
B) arcuate fasciculi
C) association fibers
D) commissural fibers
E) spinothalamic tracts

Question 7

What is the function of gray matter in the CNS?

A) to carry information in tracts from the peripheral nervous system to the CNS
B) to speed up nerve transmission
C) neural integration and synaptic communication
D) to communicate between the different lobes of the brain
E) signals the brain centers to produce dopamine

Question 8

What symptom of stroke distinguishes it from other neurological disorders?

A) sudden onset
B) muscle weakness
C) paralysis
D) loss of vision
E) tingling sensations in the extremities

Question 9

Through physical examination, neurologists can easily determine which spinal nerve has been damaged and at what level in the spinal cord an injury has occurred due to mapping out the various sensory regions called

A) projection fibers.
B) ganglia.
C) dermatomes.
D) association fibers.
E) commissural fibers.

Question 10

Which nerves innervate the anterior thigh?

A) cranial nerves
B) lumbar nerves
C) sacral nerves
D) cervical nerves
E) thoracic nerves

Question 11

Which of the following would consist of white matter?

A) ventral horn of the spinal cord
B) basal nuclei
C) dorsal columns of the spinal cord
D) cerebral cortex
E) dorsal horn of the spinal cord

Question 12

Which of the following substances requires mediated transport to cross the blood -brain barrier?

A) hydrogen ions
B) oxygen
C) ethanol
D) carbon dioxide
E) glucose

Question 13

What type of glucose transporter is located in the endothelial cells of the blood -brain barrier?

A) cotransporter with sodium
B) GLUT -1
C) GLUT -4
D) GLUT -2
E) countertransporter with sodium

Question 14

Physicians administer drugs or do spinal taps in the lumbar region of the spine. Which statement best describes why the lumbar region of the spine is used for such procedures?

A) This is where the dorsal and ventral roots are located and drugs administered to the roots are more effective.
B) Patients are less sensitive in this area of the back.
C) It is due to the anatomical feature known as the cauda equina (Latin "horse tail"), meaning the spinal cord spreads out into individual nerves and the physician is less likely to harm the spinal cord.
D) It is due to the anatomical feature of projection fibers that connect the spinal cord with the brain so the drugs will make it to the brain.
E) It is because of gravity; the CFS has more pressure in the lumbar region of the spine.

Question 15

Tight junctions between capillary endothelial cells in the central nervous system create the blood -brain barrier, thereby restricting what type of movement of molecules into the brain?

A) diffusion of lipophilic
B) transcytosis of
C) diffusion of hydrophilic
D) facilitated diffusion of hydrophobic
E) active transport of

Question 16

Insulin is known to cross the blood -brain barrier and attach to receptors in the brain. Which statement best describes the function of insulin in the brain?

A) It causes stroke.
B) It decreases hunger.
C) It assists in glucose metabolism.
D) It increases hunger.
E) It signals the brain to release glucagon.

Question 17

The face is innervated by what type of nerves?

A) lumbar
B) sacral
C) cranial
D) cervical
E) thoracic

Question 18

Which spinal nerves originate in the neck region?

A) cervical nerves
B) coccygeal nerve
C) thoracic nerves
D) lumbar nerves
E) sacral nerves

Question 19

In order for ions to move across the capillary endothelial cells of the blood -brain barrier, they must

A) be lipophobic.
B) be hydrophilic.
C) move through the endothelial cell layer by transcytosis.
D) move through pores between endothelial cells.
E) be transported across endothelial cells.

Question 20

Which statement best describes why the brain requires an uninterrupted supply of blood?

A) The CNS has a limited ability to produce energy anaerobically.
B) The CNS has very little glycogen to convert to glucose.
C) The CNS has very little glycogen to convert to glucose and has limited ability to produce energy anaerobically.
D) The CNS does not have access to fatty acids for energy, which increases their demand for glucose.
E) The CNS has limited glycogen to convert to glucose, it does not have access to fatty acids for energy, and it has limited ability to produce energy anaerobically.

Question 21

Which cerebral lobe contains the auditory cortex?

A) occipital
B) parietal
C) medial
D) frontal
E) temporal

Question 22

Which of the following characteristics is NOT a specialization of the right side of the cerebrum in most individuals?

A) musical
B) creativity
C) spatial perception
D) logic
E) artistic qualities

Question 23

What region of the diencephalon filters and refines sensory information, allowing us to direct our attention to specific external stimuli?

A) basal nuclei
B) thalamus
C) hypothalamus
D) putamen
E) limbic system

Question 24

An epileptic patient has undergone a complete corpus callosotomy, a surgical procedure that results in the complete disconnection of the corpus callosum. Which statement best describes the behaviors you would observe in this type of patient?

A) This area of the brain controls higher -order thinking therefore the patient will have no interest in solving problems.
B) This area of the brain determines personality therefore the patient will undergo changes in personality, usually becoming more aggressive.
C) Since communication between the hemispheres has been disconnected, the patient will be unable to speak; you must have both sides of the brain working in order to form words.
D) This area of the brain controls the ability to see things in three dimensions; it is likely this patient will always be running into items.
E) Since communication between the hemispheres has been disconnected, the patient cannot name what the right side of the brain is seeing.

Question 25

Where is the thermoregulatory center?

A) pons
B) hippocampus
C) amygdala
D) hypothalamus
E) medulla oblongata

Question 26

Which of the following is a descending tract?

A) spinotectal tract
B) lateral spinothalamic tract
C) dorsal columns
D) anterior spinothalamic tract
E) anterior pyramidal tract

Question 27

Which cranial nerve controls eye movements, papillary reflex, accommodation reflex, and proprioception?

A) oculomotor
B) trochlear
C) trigeminal
D) abducens
E) glossopharyngeal

Question 28

Which area of the brain plays an important role in sleep -wake cycles, arousal of the cerebral cortex, and consciousness?

A) reticular formation
B) temporal lobe
C) frontal lobes
D) cerebellum
E) diencephalon

Question 29

Which region of the limbic system is primarily involved in the emotion of fear?

A) cingulate gyrus
B) hippocampus
C) amygdala
D) thalamus
E) fornix

Question 30

In the motor and sensory homunculi, each body part is shown next to the area of cerebral cortex devoted to it. Which statement best describes what these homunculi represent?

A) The homunculi map out the dermatomes of the body.
B) The relative size of the body parts corresponds to the ascending and descending tracts that control that body part.
C) The homunculi are open to interpretation by neurologists, based upon his or her area of specialty.
D) The relative size of the body part represents the relative size of the cortical area devoted to that body part.
E) The relative size of the body part distinguishes which part is primarily on the right side of the brain versus the left.

Question 31

This area of the brain is often referred to as the "control center" because it plays an important role in regulating homeostasis. It is involved in hunger, thirst, thermoregulation, and many other important homeostatic measures.

A) cerebral cortex
B) limbic system
C) cerebellum
D) hypothalamus
E) thalamus

Question 32

Which cranial nerve controls the motor control of swallowing and salivary glands and taste?

A) oculomotor
B) trochlear
C) trigeminal
D) abducens
E) glossopharyngeal

Question 33

Afferent and efferent axons travel together in spinal nerves, but they separate into different bundles when they leave and enter the spinal cord. The afferent axons enter the spinal cord via the root and efferent axons leave the spinal cord via the

A) canal : spindle
B) ventral : dorsal
C) dorsal : ventral
D) ascending : descending
E) descending : ascending

Question 34

Which of the following characteristics is NOT a specialization of the left side of the cerebrum in most individuals?

A) spatial perception
B) analytical reasoning
C) comprehension of language
D) logical reasoning
E) expression of language

Question 35

The lobe contains the primary motor cortex, which initiates
Movement.

A) parietal lobe : voluntary
B) medial lobe : voluntary
C) occipital lobe : involuntary
D) temporal lobe : involuntary
E) frontal lobe : voluntary

Question 36

Which cranial nerve controls the muscles for chewing?

A) oculomotor
B) trochlear
C) trigeminal
D) abducens
E) glossopharyngeal

Question 37

An ascending or descending pathway that is located on the same side of the central nervous system integration center is called

A) contralateral.
B) longitudinal.
C) ipsilateral.
D) commissural.
E) lateralized.

Question 38

Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus?

A) contains the cardiovascular control centers
B) communication between the nervous and endocrine system
C) controls hunger and thirst
D) controls thermoregulation
E) affects emotions and behaviors in response to emotions

Question 39

Which cerebral lobe contains the visual cortex?

A) temporal
B) medial
C) occipital
D) parietal
E) frontal

Question 40

The plays a principle role in establishing the circadian rhythm of the body.

A) suprachiasmatic nucleus
B) putamen
C) globus pallidus
D) caudate nucleus
E) cingulate gyrus

Question 41

Which of the following reflexes is a monosynaptic reflex found in the human body?

A) muscle spindle stretch
B) crossed -flexor
C) withdrawal
D) pupillary light
E) crossed -extensor

Question 42

How is a reflex that involves signals sent along autonomic sensory nerves classified?

A) visceral
B) spinal
C) cranial
D) somatic
E) innate

Question 43

What neural pathway provides for the control of fine, discrete movements of the extremities?

A) rubrospinal tract
B) reticularspinal tract
C) spinothalamic tract
D) pyramidal tract
E) tectospinal tract

Question 44

The withdrawal reflex is initiated by activation of what type of receptor?

A) taste receptor
B) photoreceptor
C) nociceptor
D) warm receptor
E) muscle spindle stretch receptor

Question 45

Damage to the cerebellum will lead to which of the following symptoms?

A) the generation of clumsy, poorly directed movements
B) the generation of movement of large muscle groups only
C) the generation of slow, fine movements only
D) a complete inability to move (lack of execution)
E) an inability to accurately plan a movement

Question 46

The crossed -extensor reflex is initiated by activation of what type of receptor?

A) warm receptor
B) nociceptor
C) muscle spindle stretch receptor
D) taste receptor
E) photoreceptor

Question 47

Which of the following areas of the brain is involved in coordinated movement?

A) pineal gland
B) brainstem nuclei
C) cerebellum
D) cortex
E) thalamus

Question 48

A characteristic sign of cerebellar damage which involves a violent shaking motion that becomes worse as the limb gets closer to its target is called a(n) tremor.

A) rest
B) kinetic
C) intention
D) action
E) postural

Question 49

How is a reflex that requires only a single synapse between two neurons classified?

A) polyneuronal
B) polysynaptic
C) monosynaptic
D) bineuronal
E) bisynaptic

Question 50

The execution of a voluntary motor task involves a series of steps. Which of the following presents those steps in the correct order?

A) intent, feedback, program, execute
B) program, intent, feedback, execute
C) intent, program, execute, feedback
D) program, intent, execute, feedback
E) feedback, intent, program, execute

Question 51

The lower motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle, and induce them to contract, originate from the

A) pyramidal tract.
B) dorsal horn of the spinal cord.
C) motor cortex.
D) ventral horn of the spinal cord.
E) basal nuclei.

Question 52

How is a reflex that requires communication with the brain classified?

A) visceral
B) spinal
C) cranial
D) somatic
E) innate

Question 53

What is the function of the tectospinal tract?

A) transmits impulses associated with hearing
B) controls the head, neck, and lumbar muscles in order to maintain posture
C) controls muscle tone
D) transmits impulses associated with pain
E) controls the head so that the eyes can follow and object

Question 54

Threading a needle or a fishing hook would involve which of the following tracts?

A) spinocerebellar
B) vestibulospinal
C) tectospinal
D) reticulospinal
E) pyramidal

Question 55

How is a reflex with which we are born classified?

A) visceral
B) spinal
C) cranial
D) somatic
E) innate

Question 56

In response to stepping on a nail, the crossed -extensor reflex causes

A) flexion of the leg opposite the side of receptor activation.
B) extension of the leg opposite the side of receptor activation.
C) extension of the arm on the side of receptor activation.
D) extension of the leg on the side of receptor activation.
E) flexion of the leg on the side of receptor activation.

Question 57

The primary function of the ventromedial pathways is on the muscles of the

A) ears, eyes, and mouth.
B) knee, ankle, and foot.
C) stomach, back, and buttocks.
D) trunk, neck, and proximal portions of the limb.
E) fingers, wrists, and toes.

Question 58

What two tracts control skeletal muscle activity?

A) fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus
B) spinocerebellar and spinothalmic
C) pyramidal and rubrospinal tracts
D) tectospinal and spinothalamic
E) reticular spinal and corticospinal

Question 59

Which of the following does NOT describe a type of reflex that occurred when Pavlov's dogs salivated in response to the ringing of a bell?

A) visceral
B) cranial
C) conditioned
D) spinal
E) polysynaptic

Question 60

What area of the brain is often referred to as the "primitive brain" due to its association with very basic human drives such as aggression, fear, and the sense of smell?

A) cerebral cortex
B) thalamus
C) cerebellum
D) hypothalamus
E) limbic system

Question 61

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep?

A) illogical and bizarre thoughts
B) loss of postural muscle tone
C) decreased limbic system activity
D) increased parasympathetic activity
E) increased brain activity

Question 62

During an initial interview, a patient tells you that he is having intense bizarre nightmares but awakens spontaneously. What phase of sleep would you tell the physician the patient has described to you?

A) delta phase sleep
B) REM sleep
C) stage 1 high -frequency sleep
D) slow -wave sleep (SWS) or non -REM sleep
E) stage 4 high -frequency sleep

Question 63

Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a function of sleep?

A) to facilitate long -term memory
B) to conserve energy
C) to clear short -term memory
D) to enhance immune function
E) mental practicing while dreaming

Question 64

You're interviewing a patient who has recently had a stroke. You ask her to state her name and house address. She appears to understand your question, but when she tries to answer, she stutters and slurs her words, which are not grammatically correct. What type of aphasia is your patient displaying?

A) anomic
B) Wernicke's
C) global
D) isolation
E) Broca's

Question 65

Huntington's disease is one of the few dominant genetic disorders that causes exaggerated involuntary jerking motions and progressive dementia. What area of the brain is primarily responsible for these symptoms?

A) choroid plexus
B) cingulate gyrus
C) basal nuclei
D) amygdala
E) corpus callosum

Question 66

Parkinson's disease appears to target

A) cholinergic : red nuclei
B) dopaminergic : substantia nigra
C) adrenergic : substantia nigra
D) cholinergic : substantia nigra
E) adrenergic : red nuclei

Question 67

Which of the following is known to cause drowsiness?

A) vitamin B₁₂
B) antihistamines
C) birth control pills
D) vitamin D
E) aspirin

Question 68

A new mother is visiting the pediatrician because her baby is sleeping up to 17 hours a day. She jokes with the doctor that her husband, who is quite older than she, sleeps only 5 hours a day and seems fully rested. Which of the following would be the most likely response from the physician?

A) "The normal sleep cycle is 8 hours. We need to hospitalize your baby for observation."
B) "Your baby is fine. It is normal for babies to sleep up to 17 hours a day. By the way, it is also normal for older adults to need less sleep as they age."
C) "Your baby is sleeping too much, but since your husband is up, have him play with the baby."
D) "Your baby is fine. It is normal for babies to sleep up to 17 hours a day. However, you probably need to send your husband to a doctor since a person needs to sleep at least 8 hours a day."
E) "I will refer you to a sleep center as both your baby and husband need to be evaluated for sleep disorders."

Question 69

What area of the brain controls language comprehension?

A) Wernicke's area
B) limbic system
C) hypothalamus
D) Broca's area
E) amygdala

Question 70

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of slow -wave sleep?

A) decreased muscle tone
B) decreased brain activity
C) snoring
D) elaborate and intense dreams
E) increased parasympathetic activity

Question 71

When you're awake and alert, an EEG shows a pattern of high -frequency, low -amplitude oscillations known as . When you're awake but resting, the EEG shifts to a new pattern of
Lower -frequency, higher -amplitude waves known as .

A) delta waves : theta waves
B) beta waves : alpha waves
C) theta waves : delta waves
D) sigmoid waves : electromagnetic waves
E) alpha waves : beta waves

Question 72

Your roommate not only talks in her sleep but also sleepwalks. Which statement best describe what sleep phase she is in?

A) stage 1 high -frequency sleep
B) stage 4 high -frequency sleep
C) slow -wave sleep (SWS) or non -REM sleep
D) delta phase sleep
E) REM sleep

Question 73

If a bilingual person has a stroke in the language centers of the brain, which statement best describes the likely outcome of recovering one of the languages?

A) The most recently learned language will suffer the greatest deficit.
B) The most recently learned language will suffer the greatest unless both languages were learned at about the same time in which case both languages will be equally affected.
C) The most recently learned language will not be affected.
D) If both languages were learned at about the same time, then the two languages will be equally affected.
E) The person is most likely to speak both languages within the same sentence.

Question 74

When your mind is "racing" at night and you cannot fall asleep what, region of the brain is keeping you awake?

A) cerebellum
B) limbic system
C) forebrain
D) pons
E) reticular formation

Question 75

You're interviewing a patient who has recently had a stroke. You ask him to state his name and house address. He has no response. You write down your question and have him read it. His reply is "yesterday morrow soon." What type of aphasia is your patient displaying?

A) Wernicke's
B) global
C) isolation
D) anomic
E) Broca's

Question 76

What anatomical feature of the brain has a similar function to that of the cerebellum?

A) choroid plexus
B) corpus callosum
C) cingulate gyrus
D) amygdala
E) basal nuclei

Question 77

Which statement best describes why nicotine should be avoided before going to bed?

A) It binds to receptors in the cerebral cortex, which is involved in wake/sleep cycles.
B) Nicotine is a depressant and, therefore, negative feedback speeds up your heart and respiratory systems, which keep you from relaxing.
C) Nicotine mimics acetylcholine, which is associated with the ascending reticular activating system.
D) Nicotine should not be avoided before bed; it will help relax you before going to sleep.
E) It binds to receptors in the corpus callosum, which stimulates both sides of the brain.

Question 78

If you tend to remember your dreams, what stage of sleep are you in and what time of the night are the dreams likely occurring?

A) REM sleep during the alternating patterns of REM
B) REM sleep and early in the sleep cycle, or just as you make your way into REM sleep
C) REM sleep and late into the sleep cycle, or prior to waking in the morning
D) slow -wave sleep during stage 1, or just as you fall asleep
E) slow -wave sleep during stage 4, or in deep sleep just before you go into REM sleep

Question 79

During rapid eye movement sleep, there is a(n) in frequency of the electroencephalogram and a(n) in arousal threshold.

A) increase : decrease
B) decrease : increase
C) decrease : decrease
D) increase : increase
E) stabilization : decrease

Question 80

Rapid eye movement (REM) is called paradoxical sleep because

A) people are more likely to awaken spontaneously during REM sleep when arousal threshold is highest.
B) people are less likely to awaken spontaneously during REM sleep when arousal threshold is lowest.
C) electroencephalogram activity reverts toward that observed in an awake, alert person.
D) electroencephalogram activity is quite different from slow -wave sleep.
E) electroencephalogram activity can change quite extensively during REM sleep.