Deck 13: Immune System Disorders

Question 1

Health care providers determine the specific allergen that is generating symptoms by using a blood test to look at _ _ levels.

A) IgD
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgM
E) IgG

Answer 1

IgE

Question 2

What is the difference between an intolerance and an allergy?

A) Intolerances produce symptoms that last several days, while patients having an allergic reaction recover in less than 24 hours.
B) Intolerances have mild symptoms, while allergic reactions can be life threatening.
C) Intolerances tend to have a delayed onset of symptoms, while allergic reactions occur rapidly.
D) Intolerances can change over a patient's lifetime, but allergic reactions do not change throughout a patient's life.
E) Intolerances occur due to a patient's exposure to the environment, while allergic reactions are genetically determined.

Answer 2

Intolerances tend to have a delayed onset of symptoms, while allergic reactions occur rapidly.

Question 3

Immune complex reactions belong to which class of hypersensitivity reactions?

A) type I
B) type II
C) type III
D) type IV
E) type V

Answer 3

type II

Question 4

The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is used to monitor

A) anemia.
B) inflammation.
C) pregnancy.
D) declining health in aging patients.
E) infectious status.

Question 5

Which of the following describes how the hygiene hypothesis is related to type I hypersensitivity reactions?

A) Between 1997 and 2011, the incidence of food allergies in the United States increased by 50 percent.
B) Children living on a farm are 25 percent more likely to experience seasonal allergies than children living in a large city.
C) Food allergies have increased 3- fold in chronically poor families as compared to wealthy families in the United States.
D) Up to 30 percent of people in undeveloped countries suffer from allergic rhinitis.
E) Wealthy individuals are 10 times more likely to experience anaphylactic shock as compared to someone raised in an orphanage during adolescences.

Question 6

Autoimmune disorders are

A) genetic conditions present from birth that continually degrade over time.
B) acute infections that target the immune system.
C) chronic conditions that develop from the immune system attacking healthy self- tissues that should normally be left alone.
D) short- term mistakes made by the immune system that are quickly recognized and self- limited.
E) caused by the immune system not being stimulated enough in adolescence and as a result is over reactive and can cross- react with host tissues.

Question 7

Which of the following is not a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A) seasonal allergies
B) food allergy
C) eczema
D) Goodpasture syndrome
E) allergy- based asthma

Question 8

Localized anaphylaxis tends to feature isolated symptoms such as

A) fainting, chest pain, or vomiting.
B) anxiety, nausea, or swelling.
C) decreased blood pressure, shortness of breath, or abdominal pain.
D) confusion, hives, or hoarseness.
E) watery eyes, a runny nose, or a confined rash.

Question 9

Which of the following class of hypersensitivity reactions is not associated with autoimmunity?

A) allergies
B) cytotoxic
C) autoimmune
D) delayed hypersensitivity
E) immune complex

Question 10

A patient that experiences a tuberculin skin test reaction is experiencing which class of hypersensitivity reactions?

A) type I
B) type II
C) type III
D) type IV
E) type V

Question 11

Which of the following is not a hallmark sign of primary immunodeficiencies?

A) persistent
B) recurring
C) severe
D) acute
E) uncommon

Question 12

What two types of patients help demonstrate that cancer can be considered a failure of the immune system?

A) rheumatoid arthritis patients and multiple sclerosis patients
B) nervous system complication patients and pulmonary system complication patients
C) transplant patients and HIV/AIDS patients
D) hepatitis C infected patients and human papilloma viruses infected patients
E) migraine patients and digestive issue patients

Question 13

Which of the following allergies and treatments is mismatched?

A) insect bite/sting allergy: continued preemptive treatment with an injected antibody preparation that ties up the patient's IgE antibodies
B) food allergy: managed on a contact basis using antihistamines like Benadryl
C) allergic asthma: inhaled drugs that open up the bronchi
D) atopic dermatitis: usually treated topically with ointments that may contain steroid anti- inflammatory drugs
E) anaphylaxis: epinephrine may be administered and emergency medical care must be sought

Question 14

Autoimmune disorders are diagnosed using

A) metabolic factors.
B) detection of autoantibodies.
C) family history.
D) a collection of tests and careful assessment of signs and symptoms.
E) blood tests.

Question 15

Which of the following is not a proposed explanation for the development of autoimmunity?

A) Certain antigens in a person's diet could trigger the production of antibodies that cross- react with host tissues.
B) If a pathogen has antigens that resemble host factors, it could trigger the production of antibodies that cross- react with host tissues.
C) Certain pathogens may release superantigens that inappropriately activate certain T cells against self- factors.
D) Cytopathic effects generated by a pathogen could encourage host antigen- presenting cells to process and present self- antigens to T cells.
E) Genetics

Question 16

Desensitization immunotherapies are least effective to treat allergies from which of the following?

A) fire ant stings
B) milk
C) pollen
D) bee stings
E) dust mites

Question 17

In desensitization immunotherapy, an antigen is used to stimulate cell 2, which can then stimulate cell 3 and cause the production of item 4. Identify cell 2, cell 3 and item 4.

A) T helper 1 cell, T helper 2 cell, and IgG antibodies
B) mast cell, T helper 2 cell, and IgE antibodies
C) T regulatory cell, T helper 2 cell, and IgE antibodies
D) T regulatory cell, T helper 1 cell, and IgG antibodies
E) T regulatory cell, mast cell, and IgD antibodies

Question 18

Which of the following can cause primary immunodeficiencies?

A) systemic disorders
B) congenital immunodeficiency
C) medical interventions
D) aging
E) infectious agents

Question 19

reactions are inappropriate responses against a threat that lead to immune- based pathologies such as allergy and autoimmunity.

A) Hypersensitivity
B) Endopathic
C) Autopathic
D) Aversion
E) Sensitivity

Question 20

Which of the following factors impacts the signs, symptoms, and severity of an allergic response?

A) IgE production
B) family history
C) family history, route of exposure, and IgE production
D) route of exposure
E) route of exposure and IgE production

Question 21

An allergen is any antigen that triggers IgE production and leads to a scenario where the immune system fights off a perceived threat that would otherwise be harmless.

Question 22

Graves' disease is an example of which of the following type II hypersensitivity cytotoxic reactions?

A) Antibodies directly recruit leukocytes to lyse tagged extracellular cells
B) Antibodies interact with a cell- surface receptor on self- cells causing the overactivation of the receptor.
C) IgG binds to nonsoluble antigens on the surface of a cell causing complement proteins to opsonize the target, thereby tagging it for phagocytosis.
D) IgM binds to nonsoluble antigens on the surface of a cell causing complement cascade activation to lyse cells.
E) Antibodies interact with a cell- surface receptor on self- cells causing the inactivation of the receptor.

Question 23

If the patient has an allergy to the tested allergen, then the skin develops a lesion consisting of a flattened reddened area called the wheal and a raised, inflamed area called the flare.

Question 24

Which of the following would not cause serum sickness?

A) anti- inflammatory drugs
B) penicillin
C) antivenom
D) sulfa drugs
E) antitoxin

Question 25

Which of the following diseases makes antibodies against centromeres and topoisomerases?

A) poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
B) scleroderma
C) systemic lupus erythematosus
D) Sjögren's syndrome
E) rheumatoid arthritis

Question 26

A patient with the antigens A and RH+ would not be able to receive blood from which of the following?

A) A+
B) A-
C) O+
D) B+
E) O-

Question 27

Why are type IV hypersensitivities called delayed hypersensitivity reactions?

A) Drugs to counteract type IV reactions are large and slow to be absorbed by the affected cells causing the patient to tolerate a lengthy symptomatic phase before recovery is complete.
B) Although type IV reactions can cause skin lesions, watery eyes, and a runny nose, treatment for those symptoms needs to be delayed due to the rapid drop in blood pressure which soon follows and needs to be dealt with first.
C) Type IV reactions affect nerve cells and cause nerve impulses to slow resulting in visibly slower movements from the patient.
D) Type IV reactions manifest slowly over 12- 72 hours after the stimulating antigen is encountered.
E) Type IV reactions only occur in underdeveloped countries and medical attention often needs to be delayed until the patient can be brought to a hospital.

Question 28

Although antivenom can save lives, it can also cause what type of reaction in certain patients?

A) nonautoimmune type III hypersensitivity
B) type II hypersensitivity
C) type IV hypersensitivity
D) autoimmune type III hypersensitivity
E) type I hypersensitivity

Question 29

Which of the following is an autoimmune type IV hypersensitivity?

A) celiac disease
B) multiple sclerosis
C) Hashimoto thyroiditis
D) graft- versus- host disease
E) Guillain- Barré syndrome, Hashimoto thyroiditis, multiple sclerosis, and celiac disease

Question 30

Allografts are

A) transplants that are made in an immune- privileged site in the body are the least likely to be rejected.
B) transplants from self, like a self- skin graft from one part of the body to another location.
C) transplanted tissue from an identical twin.
D) interspecies transplants.
E) similar to the host, but not genetically identical.

Question 31

Which of the following statements about type III hypersensitivities is false?

A) They develop when IgD or IgE antibodies bind to insoluble targets.
B) Insoluble complexes are deposited in tissues.
C) Massive inflammation is triggered by the antibody aggregates activating complement cascades.
D) Antibodies involved in type III reactions can be made as part of an autoimmune response or formed as a normal response to foreign antigens.
E) Relatively large antigen- antibody aggregates form.

Question 32

An allergy is a scenario where the immune system fights off a perceived threat that would otherwise eventually cause the breakdown of skin or other localized tissue.

Question 33

In which of the following cases is RhoGAM not given to the RH- mother in order to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A) within 72 hours of delivery
B) subsequent to miscarriage or abortion
C) after amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling
D) around the 8th week of pregnancy
E) following an episode of vaginal bleeding during pregnancy

Question 34

Any allergen can cause an anaphylactic response, but usually this dangerous scenario is caused by injected or ingested allergens such as foods, drugs, and insect venoms.

Question 35

Which of the following hypersensitivities are T cell- mediated responses against self- antigens or otherwise harmless antigens?

A) type I hypersensitivities and type II hypersensitivities
B) type III hypersensitivities
C) type II hypersensitivities
D) type I hypersensitivities
E) type IV hypersensitivities

Question 36

Which of the following examples of type II hypersensitivities are matched incorrectly with their mediated mechanism?

A) rheumatic heart disease: cytolytic
B) myasthenia gravis: noncytolytic
C) Graves' disease: noncytolytic
D) Goodpasture syndrome: noncytolytic
E) hemolytic disease of the newborn: cytolytic

Question 37

In what situation is hemolytic disease of the newborn a life and death situation?

A) when an RH- women and an RH+ male have intercourse
B) when an RH- mom is pregnant for the first time with an RH+ fetus
C) when an RH+ women and an RH- male have intercourse
D) when an RH+ mom is pregnant for the second time with an RH- fetus
E) when an RH- mom is pregnant for the second time with an RH+ fetus

Question 38

Which of the following are used to treat serum sickness?

A) anti- inflammatory drugs
B) sulfa drugs
C) antihistamines
D) anti- inflammatory drugs and antihistamines
E) anti- inflammatory drugs, antihistamines, and sulfa drugs

Question 39

What is graft- versus- host disease?

A) It occurs when tissue from an isograft is rejected.
B) It occurs when tissue from an allograft is rejected.
C) Immune system cells of the host attack the newly transplanted bone marrow and reject it.
D) Immune system cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the body of its new host.
E) It occurs when tissue from a xenograft is rejected.

Question 40

Currently, there are no cures or preventions for autoimmune disorders.

Question 41

Why is it challenging for clinicians to narrow down the autoimmune disorder at play and how is it diagnosed in the end?

Question 42

Why would someone allergic to pecans want to avoid other tree nuts as well?

Question 43

The antibodies involved in type III reactions can be made as part of an autoimmune response or formed as a normal response to foreign antigens.

Question 44

The blood type AB+ is referred to as the universal donor.

Question 45

Immune- privileged sites include the eye, brain, uterus, and testicles.

Question 46

Explain the difference between Celiac disease and an actual gluten allergy.

Question 47

A contributing factor to increasing latex sensitivities among healthcare workers is that wearing gloves on a regular basis often causes dry, cracked skin that may promote entry of the latex into the skin to trigger sensitization.