Deck 18: Practical Applications of Immunology

Question 1

Which of the following tests is not correctly matched to its positive reaction?

A) Complement fixation - no hemolysis
B) ELISA - enzyme- substrate reaction
C) Neutralization - no tissue/animal death
D) Hemagglutination - clumping of red blood cells
E) None of the above

Answer 1

E

Question 2

Purified protein from B. pertussis is a(n)

A) Conjugated vaccine
B) Subunit vaccine
C) Nucleic acid vaccine
D) Attenuated whole- agent vaccine
E) Toxoid vaccine

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which is the third step in a direct ELISA test?

A) Antigen
B) Antihuman immune serum
C) Antibodies against the antigen
D) Substrate for the enzyme

Answer 3

B

Question 4

If a patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin, this indicates all of the following except

A) A recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies.
B) The patient may have had the disease and has recovered.
C) The patient may have the disease.
D) The patient was near someone who had the disease.
E) The patient may have been vaccinated.

Question 5

What type of vaccine is live measles virus?

A) Conjugated vaccine
B) Subunit vaccine
C) Nucleic acid vaccine
D) Attenuated whole- agent vaccine
E) Toxoid vaccine

Question 6

A vaccine against HIV proteins made by vaccinia virus is a(n)

A) Conjugated vaccine.
B) Subunit vaccine.
C) Nucleic acid vaccine.
D) Inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
E) Toxoid vaccine.

Question 7

A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen- forming lattices is called a(n)

A) Agglutination reaction.
B) Complement fixation.
C) Immunofluorescence.
D) Neutralization reaction.
E) Precipitation reaction.

Question 8

An indirect version of which test using antihuman globulin may be used to detect patient's antibodies against Treponema pallidum?

A) Agglutination reaction
B) Complement fixation
C) Immunofluorescence
D) Neutralization reaction
E) Precipitation reaction

Question 9

Antibodies for serological testing can be obtained from all of the following except

A) Monoclonal antibodies.
B) Viral cultures.
C) Vaccinated humans.
D) Vaccinated animals.
E) None of the above.

Question 10

Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n)

A) Inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
B) Attenuated whole- agent vaccine.
C) Conjugated vaccine.
D) Subunit vaccine.
E) Toxoid vaccine.

Question 11

Which of the following is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone HCG in a woman's urine using anti- HCG and latex spheres?

A) Direct agglutination reaction
B) Passive agglutination reaction
C) Immunofluorescence
D) Neutralization reaction
E) Precipitation reaction

Question 12

Live polio virus can be used in a(n)

A) Inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
B) Attenuated whole- agent vaccine.
C) Conjugated vaccine.
D) Subunit vaccine.
E) Toxoid vaccine.

Question 13

Which of the following is most useful in determining the presence of AIDS antibodies?

A) Agglutination
B) Direct fluorescent antibody
C) Neutralization
D) Complement fixation
E) Indirect ELISA

Question 14

Situation 18.1
In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, patient's serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In apositive test, a precipitate forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well

-The immunodiffusion test described in Situation 18.1 is

A) An ELISA test.
B) A direct test.
C) A complement- fixation test.
D) A precipitation reaction.
E) An agglutination reaction.

Question 15

All of the following are disadvantages of a live virus vaccine except

A) Exogenous protein contaminants may be present.
B) Live viruses generally require refrigeration.
C) Antibody response is not as good as with inactivated viruses.
D) The live vaccine may revert to a more virulent form.
E) None of the above.

Question 16

A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(n)

A) Agglutination reaction.
B) Complement fixation.
C) Immunofluorescence.
D) Neutralization reaction.
E) Precipitation reaction.

Question 17

Situation 18.1
In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, patient's serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In apositive test, a precipitate forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well

-In Situation 18.1, what is in the second well?

A) Mycelia
B) Antibodies
C) Red blood cells
D) A fungal antigen
E) Fungal cells

Question 18

Which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in patient's saliva?

A) Direct agglutination reaction
B) Passive agglutination reaction
C) Immunofluorescence
D) Neutralization reaction
E) Precipitation reaction

Question 19

To detect botulinum toxin in food, suspect food is injected into two guinea pigs. The guinea pig that was vaccinated against botulism survives, while the one that was not vaccinated dies. This is an example of

A) Agglutination.
B) Fluorescent antibodies.
C) Hemagglutination.
D) ELISA.
E) Neutralization.

Question 20

The circumsporozoite antigen of Plasmodium can be used for all of the following except to

A) Decrease recurring infections.
B) Produce monoclonal antibodies.
C) Cure infected people.
D) Vaccinate healthy people.
E) All of the above.

Question 21

Palivizumab is used to treat respiratory syncytial virus disease. The antiviral drug is

A) A nucleoside analog.
B) A vaccine.
C) A monoclonal antibody.
D) An immunosuppressive.
E) A toxoid.

Question 22

Patient's serum, influenza virus, and red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against influenza virus?

A) Hemagglutination
B) Hemolysis
C) Complement fixation
D) Agglutination
E) None of the above

Question 23

Which of the following is a test to determine patient's blood type by mixing patient's red blood cells with antisera?

A) Direct agglutination reaction
B) Passive agglutination reaction
C) Immunofluorescence
D) Neutralization reaction
E) Precipitation reaction

Question 24

Hepatitis B virus surface antigen can be used in a(n)

A) Inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
B) Attenuated whole- agent vaccine.
C) Conjugated vaccine.
D) Subunit vaccine.
E) Toxoid vaccine.

Question 25

Which of the following uses red blood cells as the indicator?

A) Neutralization
B) Agglutination
C) Flow cytometry
D) Complement fixation
E) Precipitation

Question 26

Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n)

A) Inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
B) Attenuated whole- agent vaccine.
C) Conjugated vaccine.
D) Subunit vaccine.
E) Toxoid vaccine.

Question 27

Haemophilus influenzae b capsular polysaccharide with a protein is a(n)

A) Conjugated vaccine.
B) Subunit vaccine.
C) Nucleic acid vaccine.
D) Inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
E) Toxoid vaccine.

Question 28

Which of the following uses fluorescent- labeled antibodies?

A) Neutralization
B) Precipitation
C) Flow cytometry
D) Agglutination
E) Complement fixation

Question 29

The following steps are used to produce monoclonal antibodies. What is the fourth step?

A) A B cell is activated to produce antibodies.
B) Fuse a B cell to a myeloma cell.
C) Culture the hybridoma.
D) Vaccinate a mouse.
E) Isolate antibody- producing B cells.

Question 30

In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up: tube #1 contained a 1:2 dilution; tube #2, a 1:4, etc. If tube #6 is the last tube showing agglutination, what is the antibody titer?

A) 1:32
B) 1:6
C) 32
D) 64
E) 6

Question 31

A reaction using red blood cells as the indicator and hemolysis indicates an antigen- antibody reaction is called a(n)

A) Agglutination reaction.
B) Complement fixation.
C) Immunofluorescence.
D) Neutralization reaction.
E) Precipitation reaction.

Question 32

A test used to identify antibodies against Treponema pallidum in a patient is the

A) Hemagglutination- inhibition test.
B) Direct fluorescent antibody test.
C) Indirect fluorescent antibody test.
D) Direct ELISA test.
E) Direct agglutination test.

Question 33

What type of vaccine is Streptococcus pyogenes capsule?

A) Conjugated vaccine
B) Subunit vaccine
C) Nucleic acid vaccine
D) Attenuated whole- agent vaccine
E) Toxoid vaccine

Question 34

Toxoid vaccines such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus elicit a(n)

A) Dendritic cell proliferation.
B) Antibody response against these bacterial toxins.
C) Immune complex.
D) Antibody response against gram- positive bacteria.
E) TC cell response.

Question 35

What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens?

A) Conjugated vaccine
B) Subunit vaccine
C) Nucleic acid vaccine
D) Attenuated whole- agent vaccine
E) Toxoid vaccine

Question 36

A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patient is the

A) Indirect ELISA.
B) Hemagglutination- inhibition.
C) Direct fluorescent antibody test.
D) Indirect fluorescent antibody test.
E) Hemagglutination.

Question 37

In a direct ELISA test, what are you looking for in the patient?

A) Antibodies
B) Either antigen or antibodies
C) Antigen
D) None of the above

Question 38

Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n)

A) Conjugated vaccine.
B) Subunit vaccine.
C) Nucleic acid vaccine.
D) Inactivated whole- agent vaccine.
E) Toxoid vaccine.

Question 39

Patient's serum, Rickettsia, guinea pig complement, sheep red blood cells, and anti- sheep red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has epidemic typhus?

A) Hemagglutination
B) Hemolysis
C) Hemagglutination- inhibition
D) Bacteria fluoresce
E) None of the above

Question 40

A test used to detect anti- Rickettsia antibodies in a patient is the

A) Indirect fluorescent antibody test.
B) Direct fluorescent antibody test.
C) None of the above

Question 41

Which of the following is not normally used in a vaccine?

A) Inactivated viruses
B) Antibodies
C) Toxoid
D) Live, attenuated bacteria
E) Parts of bacterial cells

Question 42

Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test?

A) Substrate for the enzyme
B) Antibodies against the antigen
C) Antigen
D) Antihuman immune serum