Deck 16: Gene Mutation and Dna Repair

Question 1

A translocation that moves a gene from an area of euchromatin to heterochromatin would typically cause a(n) in the expression of the gene.

A) Reduction
B) Increase
C) Gene expression would remain the same

Answer 1

A

Question 2

The complete loss of either a guanine or adenine from DNA is an example of .

A) Depurination
B) Tautomeric shifts
C) Deamination
D) None of the answers are correct

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Darwin's theory of natural selection supported the directed mutation theory.

Answer 3

False

Question 4

Mutations that change the configuration of a protein at a specific temperature are called mutations.

A) Neutral
B) Beneficial
C) Deleterious
D) Conditional
E) None of the answers are correct

Question 5

The mutation frequency would be the same for all genes in a given culture.

Question 6

Trisomy-18, in which individuals have three copies of chromosome 18 is an example of a mutation.

A) Chromosome
B) Single-gene
C) Genome
D) All of the answers are correct

Question 7

Which of the following is correct regarding the rate of mutation?

A) Rates of mutation per cell generation typically range from 10-5 to 10-9
B) Mutation rates are consistent across species
C) Mutation rates are not influenced by environmental conditions
D) Mutation rates are constant
E) All of the answers are correct

Question 8

The process of replica plating is designed to test if advantageous mutations result in response to the
selective agent or were naturally present in the population before selection.

Question 9

After growing a culture of

A) Physiological adaptation theory
B) Spontaneous mutation theory
C) Both theories
D) Neither theory
E) coli bacteria in the presence of the T1 phage, you discover that sub- cultures taken from the original exposure show a tremendous fluctuation in the number of colonies that are resistant to the T1 phage. This fluctuation supports which of the following theories?

Question 10

Translocations and inversions may cause which of the following?

A) TRNE
B) Anticipation
C) Position effect
D) Genome mutations
E) All of the answers are correct

Question 11

Which of the following is not an example of a spontaneous mutation?

A) DNA replication errors
B) Tautomeric shifts
C) Aberrant recombination
D) UV light
E) Transposable elements

Question 12

In the following sequence of DNA, the italicized base has been mutated. What type of mutation is this?
5' - G A T C T C C G A A T T - 3' original strand
5' - G A T C T C C C A A T T - 3' mutated strand

A) Transition
B) Transversion
C) Neither

Question 13

Using the same information, if this mutation aids in the survival of the individual or increases the chances to produce offspring, it would be called a mutation.

A) Neutral
B) Lethal
C) Beneficial
D) Conditional
E) Deleterious

Question 14

Forward and reverse mutations indicate the evolutionary importance of the mutation.

Question 15

The results of the replica plating experiments by the Lederbergs supported which of the following theories?

A) Random mutation theory
B) Directed mutation theory
C) Both theories
D) Neither theory

Question 16

Most TRNE repeats involve expansion of which of the following?

A) GAA
B) CAG
C) ATG
D) CCC
E) Any codon containing three of the same bases

Question 17

The conversion of cytosine to uracil in DNA is an example of .

A) Depurination
B) Tautomeric shifts
C) Deamination
D) None of the answers are correct

Question 18

Anticipation is associated with which of the following?

A) Nonsense mutations
B) Up-promoter mutations
C) Intergenic suppressors
D) TRNE mutations
E) None of the answers are correct

Question 19

The wild-type eye color of Drosophila is red. A single-base mutation occurs that produces a white eye color. Which of the following is correct regarding this mutation?

A) It is an example of a mutation that alters protein function
B) Individuals with white eyes are called reversions
C) It would be an example of a silent mutation
D) All of the answers are correct

Question 20

After screening a colony of bacteria for a given gene, you discover 100 mutant colonies out of 3 million total colonies. What is the mutation frequency for this gene in the population?

A) 1.0 x 105
B) 1.0 x 10-5
C) 3.0 x 105
D) 3.3 x 10-5
E) None of the answers are correct

Question 21

In the nucleotide excision repair system, which of the following proteins is responsible for recognizing a thymine dimer to be repaired?

A) UvrAB
B) UvrC
C) UvrD
D) None of the answers are correct

Question 22

What is the difference between a forward and reverse mutation?

A) A forward mutation is beneficial to the organism, while a reverse mutation is harmful to the organism.
B)A forward mutation changes the genotype to the wild-type genotype, while a reverse mutation changes the genotype to a mutant genotype. C A forward mutation changes the wild-type genotype to some new genetic combination, while
) a reverse mutation changes a genotype to the wild-type genotype.
D) None of the answers are correct

Question 23

A change in the chromosome number is called a point mutation.

Question 24

The first environmental agent shown to induce mutation was .

A) UV radiation
B) Heavy metals
C) X-rays
D) Gamma rays
E) Uranium

Question 25

Utilizes MutL, MutH, and MutS proteins in

A) Recombinational repair
B) Direct repair
C) Base excision repair
D) Mismatch repair
E) Nucleotide excision repair
F) Nonhomologous end joining (NHEJ)

Question 26

Which of the following is an example of a base analog?

A) EMS
B) Nitrous acid
C) 5BU
D) Nitrogen mustards
E) Acridine dyes

Question 27

Ethyl methanesulfonate (EMS) is an example of a deaminating agent.

Question 28

Often leads to deletion in chromosome sequence.

A) Recombinational repair
B) Direct repair
C) Base excision repair
D) Mismatch repair
E) Nucleotide excision repair
F) Nonhomologous end joining (NHEJ)

Question 29

A heritable change in the genetic material is called a mutation.

Question 30

Photolyase in yeast.

A) Recombinational repair
B) Direct repair
C) Base excision repair
D) Mismatch repair
E) Nucleotide excision repair
F) Nonhomologous end joining (NHEJ)

Question 31

Identifies daughter strands by methylation.

A) Recombinational repair
B) Direct repair
C) Base excision repair
D) Mismatch repair
E) Nucleotide excision repair
F) Nonhomologous end joining (NHEJ)

Question 32

Silent mutations are possible due to the degenerate nature of the genetic code.

Question 33

Which of the following are examples of suppressor mutations?

A) An intragenic mutation that restores protein structure
B) An intergenic mutation that increases the activity of a protein performing the same function as the mutated protein
C) An intergenic mutation that activates a transcription factor that dramatically upregulates expression of the mutant protein
D) All of the answers are correct

Question 34

Which of the following integrate into the double-helix of DNA, inhibiting DNA replication?

A) EMS
B) Nitrous acid
C) 5BU
D) 2-amino purine
E) Acridine dyes

Question 35

The Ames test may be used to determine if an agent is a mutagen.

Question 36

A temporary change in the structure of a nitrogenous base is called .

A) Depurination
B) A tautomeric shift
C) Deamination
D) None of the answers are correct

Question 37

Is responsible for repairing damage from UV radiation.

A) Recombinational repair
B) Direct repair
C) Base excision repair
D) Mismatch repair
E) Nucleotide excision repair
F) Nonhomologous end joining (NHEJ)

Question 38

Uses enzymes called the DNA-N-glycolases.

A) Recombinational repair
B) Direct repair
C) Base excision repair
D) Mismatch repair
E) Nucleotide excision repair
F) Nonhomologous end joining (NHEJ)

Question 39

The term polarity is associated with mutations in eukaryotic cells.

Question 40

How does position effect influence gene expression? AThe movement of the genetic material on the chromosome by inversions or translocations may
) place a coding sequence near a new regulatory region, thus activating the expression of the gene.
B) The movement of the gene may place it into a region that is highly condensed (heterochromatin).
C) The movement of a gene may remove it from its normal promoter, thus silencing the gene.
D) All of the above answers are correct

Question 41

The most common genotype in a population is called the mutant genotype.

Question 42

Breakpoints in chromosome can lead to mutant phenotypes when they occur in the middle of a gene.

Question 43

A mutation in a gene that restore the wild-type phenotype of a second gene is called a suppressor
mutation.

Question 44

TRNE repeats frequently result in the addition of extra histidine amino acids to the protein.

Question 45

Somatic cells are those that give rise to sperm and egg cells.

Question 46

A mutation in a promoter region that causes the promoter sequence to more closely resemble the
consensus sequence is called a up promoter mutation and decreases transcription.

Question 47

An individual that is a genetic mosaic would be the result of a germ cell mutation.

Question 48

HRR requires the presence of a sister chromatid.

Question 49

The mutation frequency is the number of mutant genes in a given population.