Deck 23: Immunity

Question 1

The HPV vaccine consists of ____.

A) viral capsid proteins that assemble into virus-like particles
B) inactivated HPV
C) synthetic HPV
D) antibodies from infected patients
E) allergens

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Precancerous cervical cells can be detected by ____.

A) routine Pap smears
B) self-examination
C) a series of blood tests
D) X-ray examinations
E) ultrasound

Answer 2

A

Question 3

A molecule or particle recognized by the body as nonself is known as a(n) ____.

A) antibody
B) antigen
C) complement
D) macrophage
E) phagocyte

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Mast cells ____.

A) circulate in the bloodstream
B) degranulate in response to signaling molecules secreted by endocrine and nerve cells
C) respond to normal flora
D) release signaling molecules that cause arterioles to constrict
E) engulf and digest pathogens

Question 5

Virus-like particles ____.

A) carry viral DNA
B) are infectious
C) will elicit an immune response
D) are produced by cancer cells
E) cause cervical cancer

Question 6

In ____ immunity, the response is immediate, the antigen is detected by a fixed set of receptors, and the response does not persist.

A) innate
B) adaptive
C) antibody-mediated
D) cell-mediated
E) autoimmunity

Question 7

Cells of multicellular eukaryotes have receptors that can recognize approximately ____ pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs).

A) 10
B) 100
C) 1,000
D) 10,000
E) 100,000

Question 8

Innate immunity begins when ____.

A) triggered by adaptive immunity
B) PAMP receptors bind to antigen
C) white blood cells start dividing
D) complement proteins are released
E) PAMPs are detected

Question 9

What is the function of white blood cell granules, which are present in eosinophils, neutrophils, basophils, and mast cells?

A) to phagocytize pathogens and cellular debris
B) to release cytokines, digestive enzymes, and toxins that kill parasites
C) to activate killer T cells
D) to develop into dendritic cells that phagocytize pathogens
E) to act as memory cells for B lymphocytes

Question 10

Immunity ____.

A) is always adaptive
B) is an organism ' s ability to resist and combat infections
C) evolved after the emergence of multicellular organisms
D) is only found in mammals
E) is not specific for any given pathogen

Question 11

The normal flora that inhabit our body surfaces ____.

A) are harmful
B) competitively exclude more harmful species
C) produce vitamin C
D) become even more beneficial if they invade tissues
E) participate in phagocytosis of pathogens

Question 12

Inflammation ____.

A) is triggered by activated complement
B) is a specific immune response
C) results in redness due to decreased blood flow
D) results in swelling due to the loss of water from damaged tissue
E) is caused by fever

Question 13

Inflammation, complement proteins, and phagocytes are part of ____ immunity.

A) adaptive
B) innate
C) antibody-mediated
D) cell-mediated
E) surface barrier

Question 14

When macrophages bind antigens, they secrete ____ to attract more phagocytic cells.

A) more antigens
B) MHC
C) cytokines
D) antibodies
E) complement

Question 15

Which of the following is the correct order of the three lines of defense against pathogens?

A) barriers that exclude pathogens → adaptive immunity → innate immunity
B) barriers that exclude pathogens → innate immunity → adaptive immunity
C) innate immunity → adaptive immunity → barriers that exclude pathogens
D) adaptive immunity → barriers that exclude pathogens → innate immunity
E) adaptive immunity → innate immunity → barriers that exclude pathogens

Question 16

Proteins leaking out of damaged body cells activate ____, which results in a cascade of reactions that enhance phagocytosis of damaged cells by white blood cells.

A) complement proteins
B) inflammatory proteins
C) PAMPs
D) viral DNA
E) killer T cells

Question 17

Healthy cervical cells are transformed into cancerous ones by infection with ______.

A) human immunodeficiency virus
B) hepatitis C virus
C) human papilloma virus
D) Ebola virus
E) rhinovirus

Question 18

Which of the following is a phagocyte that acts to alert the adaptive immune system of the presence of antigen in solid tissue?

A) macrophages
B) monocytes
C) neutrophils
D) dendritic cells
E) eosinophils

Question 19

The body's inner surfaces are protected against penetration by harmful microorganisms by ____.

A) water permeable outer skin layers
B) watery mucus
C) high pH of gastric and vaginal environments
D) cilia
E) warm, moist environments

Question 20

____ patrol the blood and develop into phagocytic ____ that patrol tissues and interstitial fluid.

A) Macrophages; neutrophils
B) Neutrophils; macrophages
C) Dendritic cells; macrophages
D) Monocytes; macrophages
E) Monocytes; dendritic cells

Question 21

Place the following events of an inflammatory event in response to bacterial infection in proper order. 1. Activated complement binds to bacteria.
2) Capillary permeability increases.
3) Phagocytes engulf bacteria.
4) Mast cell receptors bind to bacterial antigens.
5) Signaling molecules cause arterioles to widen.

A) 4-5-2-1-3
B) 4-3-1-2-5
C) 5-2-1-4-3
D) 1-3-4-2-5
E) 5-2-4-1-3

Question 22

Fever enhances an immune response by ____.

A) increasing the rate of enzyme activity
B) decreasing phagocytosis of invading pathogens
C) increasing blood flow to the site of infection
D) decreasing the reproduction rate of microorganisms
E) decreasing heart rate and respiration

Question 23

White blood cells that patrol interstitial fluid, phagocytize almost everything except uninjured body cells, and secrete cytokines to alert the adaptive immune system to threats are known as ____.

A) neutrophils
B) macrophages
C) T lymphocytes
D) dendritic cells
E) eosinophils

Question 24

Receptors for activated complement proteins are found on ____.

A) dendritic cells, macrophages, and neutrophils
B) mast cells, macrophages, and neutrophils
C) dendritic cells, B lymphocytes, and neutrophils
D) dendritic cells, eosinophils, and macrophages
E) monocytes, T lymphocytes, and B lymphocytes

Question 25

Identify the site indicated by the arrows in the diagram.

A) complement binding site of an antibody
B) antigen binding site of an antibody
C) MHC binding site of an antigen
D) complement binding site of T cell receptor
E) MHC binding site of a T cell receptor

Question 26

If the innate immune response is not effective in neutralizing a threat, what form of immune response occurs next?

A) production of antibodies by T cells
B) phagocytosis by neutrophils
C) natural killer cells respond to sites of inflammation
D) antigen detection by antibodies
E) phagocytosis of MHC markers

Question 27

Why do lymph nodes swell during an infection?

A) Macrophages accumulate in them.
B) Bacteria accumulate in them.
C) T cells accumulate in them.
D) Production of lymphatic fluid increases.
E) Production of mucous increases.

Question 28

Which white blood cell type are concentrated in the lining of respiratory passages, are important phagocytes that protect the lungs, and present antigens to T cells?

A) B lymphocytes
B) macrophages
C) neutrophils
D) dendritic cells
E) mast cells

Question 29

In adaptive immune responses, which cell type is capable of acting as an antigen-presenting cell?

A) T cell
B) monocyte
C) eosinophil
D) B cell
E) basophil

Question 30

Donn and Sabine have three children: identical twin sons (Gerard and Gerome) and a daughter (Eliza). To which family member would Gerard ' s MHC genes be the most similar?

A) Donn
B) Sabine
C) Eliza
D) Gerome
E) Gerome, Eliza, and Gerard have identical MHC genes

Question 31

Recognition or self-proteins on the surface of your cells are called ____.

A) T cell receptors (TCRs)
B) cytokines
C) major histocompatibility complex (MHC) markers
D) complements
E) PAMPs

Question 32

Once a stimulus for inflammation subsides, ____ produce compounds that suppress inflammation and promote healing.

A) neutrophils
B) macrophages
C) dendritic cells
D) T lymphocytes
E) monocytes

Question 33

Acne results when bacterial secretions ____.

A) leak into internal tissues of follicles and cause inflammation
B) flow into open skin wounds
C) are swallowed and activate the innate immune response
D) mix with sweat and become more acidic.
E) are phagocytized by macrophages

Question 34

Complement proteins ____.

A) prevent pathogens from entering the interior environment of the body
B) bore channels in targeted cells, causing them to burst
C) inactivate other complement proteins
D) bind to pathogens making them a target for antibodies
E) destroy healthy body cells as well as invading microorganisms

Question 35

Antibody molecules ____.

A) are secreted by B cells and T cells
B) stay attached to the B cell membrane as B cell receptors
C) inactivate complement proteins
D) prevent phagocytosis
E) can each bind to many different antigens

Question 36

How are humans able to produce billions of unique B and T cell receptors?

A) Each time a pathogen is encountered, a new receptor is produced.
B) The two different genes that encode receptor proteins allow for many versions of receptors to be produced.
C) Random splicing of gene segments encoding receptor proteins allows for 2.5 billion potential combinations.
D) Antigen - presenting cells stimulate B and T cells to each produce billions of receptor molecules.
E) There are billions of B and T cells, each of which produces a single receptor on its cell surface.

Question 37

White blood cells that engulf a microorganism and then explode their contents, creating a net that traps and kills pathogens are known as ____.

A) neutrophils
B) macrophages
C) B lymphocytes
D) dendritic cells
E) eosinophils

Question 38

Once a macrophage ingests a foreign antigen, how is the antigen presented?

A) The antigen is embedded directly into the cell membrane of the macrophage.
B) The antigen is embedded in the membrane of a transport vesicle and released via exocytosis.
C) The antigen is attached to a receptor protein, forming a receptor-antigen complex.
D) The antigen is attached to MHC markers, forming a MHC-antigen complex
E) The antigen becomes part of the T cell membrane.

Question 39

The ability of the adaptive immune response to tailor its response to a particular antigen is referred to as ____.

A) diversity
B) memory
C) specificity
D) inflammation
E) self-recognition

Question 40

T cells will begin to secrete cytokines when bound to a(n) ____.

A) MHC - antigen complex
B) receptor - antigen complex
C) antigen directly bound to the surface of a transport vesicle
D) antigen - antibody complex
E) bacterial pathogen

Question 41

In an antibody-mediated immune response, with which cells do naïve helper T cells interact?

A) antigen-presenting B cells
B) effector helper T cells
C) memory B cells
D) antigen - presenting dendritic cells
E) effector B cells

Question 42

In an antibody-mediated immune response, cytokines induce ____.

A) mitosis
B) meiosis
C) DNA replication
D) protein synthesis
E) gene splicing

Question 43

When a second infection occurs by the same pathogen, the immune response occurs more rapidly due to ____.

A) effector cells
B) memory cells
C) naive T cells
D) neutrophils
E) eosinophils

Question 44

Detection of allergens by mast cells causes ____.

A) release of histamine and cytokines
B) decreased mucous secretion
C) widening of the airways
D) skin rashes
E) cell-mediated immune responses

Question 45

____ form in the bone marrow, but ____ mature in the thymus.

A) B cells; T cells
B) T cells; B cells
C) B and T cells; B cells
D) B and T cells; T cells
E) B and T cells; B and T cells

Question 46

After an active cytotoxic T cell binds to an ailing cell, it releases toxins that ____.

A) poke holes in the cell and cause it to die
B) bind to the cell and prevent it from harming other self-cells
C) attract macrophages to the cell
D) attract antibodies directed at self-cells
E) stimulate inflammation

Question 47

Antigen bearing particles in the blood travel to the ____, while those in solid tissues travel to the ____.

A) spleen; bone marrow
B) thymus; bone marrow
C) spleen; lymph nodes
D) lymph nodes; spleen
E) bone marrow; thymus

Question 48

Where do antigen-presenting cells interact with T cells?

A) the thymus gland
B) the pituitary gland
C) the lymph nodes
D) the adrenal glands
E) the bone marrow

Question 49

If a person is incapable of making effector helper T cells, what will be the result?

A) Antibodies will not be produced.
B) Effector B cells will not be produced.
C) Memory B cells will not be produced.
D) Complement cascade will not occur.
E) Memory and effector B cells will not be produced.

Question 50

The antibody-mediated immune response is most effective against ____.

A) cancer cells
B) viral infected cells
C) bacteria circulating in the blood
D) normal flora
E) self-cells

Question 51

Place the steps of bacterial antigen processing and presentation in the correct order. 1. Lysosomal enzymes digest the bacterium into molecular bits.
2) The antigen - MHC complex is displayed on the cell surface.
3) The endocytic vesicle fuses with a lysosome.
4) A bacterium is engulfed by a phagocytic cell.

A) 4-3-1-2
B) 4-3-2-1
C) 3-4-2-1
D) 3-4-2-1
E) 2-4-3-1

Question 52

Which is a defining characteristic of adaptive immunity?

A) nonspecificity
B) diversity
C) short-lived responses
D) self-recognition
E) reliance on surface barriers

Question 53

To activate the cell-mediated immune response, which event must occur?

A) A naïve helper T cell must bind to an antigen-presenting dendritic cell.
B) A naïve B cell must be activated in order to activate the effector helper T cell.
C) A free bacterium must pass through a lymph node where it will directly activate the effector helper T cell.
D) A damaged or infected body cell must pass through a lymph node in order to activate T cells.
E) Antibodies must bind to naïve helper T cells.

Question 54

Effector helper T cells release cytokines only after binding to a(n) ____.

A) antigen-presenting dendritic cell
B) memory T cell
C) complement protein
D) MHC - antigen complexes on B cells
E) antibody producing B cell

Question 55

The cell-mediated immune response is most effective against ____.

A) cancer cells only
B) viral-infected cells only
C) bacteria circulating in the blood
D) both cancer cells and viral infected cells
E) normal flora

Question 56

Natural killer cells are capable of ____.

A) stimulating T cell memory
B) killing bacteria in the interstitial fluid
C) destroying body cells lacking MHC markers
D) shutting down adaptive immune responses
E) destroying parasites in the bloodstream

Question 57

Effector B cells secrete antibodies that are ____ those produced by the original B cell from which they arose, which then ____.

A) identical to; flag antigens for phagocytosis and prevent them from attaching to body cells
B) different than; help antigens attach to body cells
C) Identical to; prevent antigens from clumping together
D) different than; present them on the surface of dendritic cells
E) in addition to; flag antigens for elimination by urination

Question 58

A naïve lymphocyte ____.

A) is bound directly to an antigen
B) has not yet bound to antigen
C) is an antigen-presenting cell
D) is a phagocyte
E) is  inflammatory

Question 59

The cells capable of releasing histamines are ____.

A) mast cells and basophils
B) basophils and eosinophils
C) mast cells and eosinophils
D) natural killer cells and macrophages
E) B and T cells

Question 60

In an antibody-mediated immune response, what causes effector helper T cells to release cytokines?

A) binding to antigen-presenting dendritic cells
B) binding to a bacterial complement
C) binding to a naive helper T cell
D) binding to a B cell
E) engulfing a bacterium

Question 61

Passive immunization ____.

A) involves exposure to antigens
B) is an innate immune response
C) is given only to adults
D) results in memory cell formation
E) involves receiving antibodies from another individual

Question 62

Since HIV attacks T cells, which type of immunity is affected in HIV-infected individuals?

A) innate
B) antibody-mediated
C) cell-mediated
D) inflammation
E) complement

Question 64

Anaphylactic shock is caused by a(n) ____.

A) overproduction of antihistamine
B) overproduction of histamines and prostaglandins
C) allergen that escapes detection by the immune system
D) cytokine storm
E) contact allergies

Question 65

Autoimmune disorders are caused by ____.

A) lymphocytes that target self-cells
B) B cell activation
C) impaired innate immunity function
D) T cell activation
E) the inability to make antibodies

Question 67

Why do immunizations require two doses?

A) The first dose stimulates the effector cells only, and the second dose stimulates the memory cells only.
B) The first dose stimulates the primary immune response, and the second dose stimulates the secondary immune response.
C) In case the first dose is not enough to induce immunity, a second dose is given.
D) The first dose often is ineffective.
E) The first dose stimulates the innate immune response, and the second dose stimulates the adaptive immune response.

Question 68

Antihistamines relieve allergy symptoms by ____.

A) inhibiting the release of histamines and cytokines
B) binding directly to histamines
C) destroying mast cells before they can produce histamines
D) binding to the allergens
E) stimulating effector T cells to produce more cytokines

Question 70

Active immunization ____.

A) involves receiving antibodies from another individual
B) utilizes the inflammation response
C) is given only to children
D) results in memory cell formation
E) involves exposure to an allergen

Question 73

Smallpox ____.

A) was the target of the first vaccine
B) is spread by infected cattle
C) is only found in subtropical climates
D) was eradicated by 1850
E) is unrelated to cowpox

Question 74

Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is characterized by ____.

A) a primary immune deficiency
B) infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
C) successful worldwide eradication due to vaccination
D) a high cure rate
E) small, local affected populations

Question 75

The goal of immunization is to ____.

A) limit the amount of time a person is ill with a disease
B) induce immunity to disease
C) enable infected individuals to recover from specific diseases
D) expose individuals to a disease
E) elicit an allergic response