Deck 12: Social Identity, Groups and Leadership

Question 1

Role schemata refers to:

A) social categories that help us to act appropriately toward other people
B) a collection of people who belong to any social category
C) membership in groups based on role assignment to a person
D) a subjective evaluation of an individual's role in a group
E) a rigid adherence by an individual to the norms of a given role

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Examples of social categories:

A) age
B) nationality
C) gender
D) occupation
E) all of the above

Answer 2

E

Question 3

Interaction based solely on the individual characteristics of the interactors is referred to as:

A) in-group interaction
B) the minimal group paradigm
C) the in-group homogeneity effect
D) pure interpersonal behaviour
E) minimal interpersonal communication

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Pure interpersonal behaviour occurs when:

A) interactants meet face-to-face
B) individuals from the same social group interact
C) individuals from different social groups interact
D) interaction is based solely on the individual identities
E) interaction is based solely on the group identities of the interactants

Question 5

The behaviour that will be exhibited by an individual in a social context depends on:

A) the individual's characteristics and the social categories which define him/her and the people with whom he/she interacts
B) the individual's social identity and group membership
C) the individual's personality characteristics
D) the group memberships of the people with whom the individual is interacting
E) none of the above

Question 6

An individual belongs to many social categories. Which of these is most likely to influence his/her behaviour at a given time?

A) the category that is most important to the individual's self-concept
B) the most broadly defined social category to which the individual belongs
C) the category which is most salient at that point in time
D) the category which he/she shares with most of the other interactants in the situation
E) all social categories to which the individual belongs will influence his/her behaviour simultaneously

Question 7

Out-group homogeneity effect refers to the perception that:

A) members of a group are more similar than they really are
B) members of another group are more similar to one another than are the members of our own group
C) members of another group are more similar to our group than they really are
D) members of the out-group that we come in contact with are similar to members of our own group
E) all out-groups are similar to each other

Question 8

The perception that members of another group are more similar to one another than members of one's own group is known as:

A) social categorization
B) role schemata
C) the out-group homogeneity effect
D) the in-group/out-group distinction
E) the fundamental attribution error

Question 9

According to Tajfel, the development of a generic norm of behaviour toward an out-group is the result of:

A) repeated exposure to in-group/out-group categorizations
B) having been discriminated against by the out-group
C) pre-existing hostility toward the out-group
D) an individual's perception of personal benefits from such norms
E) both b and c

Question 10

A generic norm, according to Tajfel (1970):

A) manifests itself in discriminatory behaviour only when hostility or prejudice has formed
B) is effective only among low status members of a group
C) leads to discrimination against an out-group only when it contributes to an individual's self-interest
D) tends, once it develops, to be manifest regardless of the context of the interaction
E) both a and c

Question 11

According to Tajfel, repeated exposure to in-group/out-group categorizations leads to the development of:

A) resentment towards the out-group
B) a generic norm of behaviour towards out-groups
C) pure interpersonal interactions
D) conflict between group members
E) sudden death

Question 12

Tajfel's generic norm of behaviour specifies:

A) discrimination towards out-groups may occur even in the absence of any pre-existing hostility
B) discrimination towards out-groups may manifest itself before any hostility or prejudice has developed against the group
C) discrimination against out-groups will be observed even in the absence of any self-interest on the part of the in-group
D) a and c
E) all of the above

Question 13

In a study by Tajfel (1970), subjects were arbitrarily divided into two groups and asked to assign points to a number of subjects whom they had never met. The results showed:

A) subjects assigned more points to in-group members than to out-group members
B) subjects assigned equal points to all the individuals
C) subjects assigned more points to out-group members
D) subjects assigned more points to in-group members only if they believed they would meet them later
E) subjects assigned more points to out-group members only if they believed they would meet them later

Question 14

The process whereby individuals define themselves with respect to other people is termed:

A) social identity
B) social comparison
C) social differentiation
D) deindividuation
E) social identification

Question 15

Social identity refers to:

A) the process whereby individuals define themselves with respect to other people
B) the process whereby individuals emphasize their differences from members of other social groups
C) those aspects of a person's self-image which depend upon the social categories and group to which he/she belongs
D) the process whereby groups are classified relative to other groups
E) the process whereby individuals adopt stereotypical behaviours associated with a special social group

Question 16

Which of the following is part of the process of social identification?

A) an individual's behaviour is influenced by the norms of the group
B) individuals perceive themselves and others in terms of membership in distinct categories
C) the individual exaggerates similarities among members of the same category
D) both a and b
E) all of the above

Question 17

Which of the following terms refers to that aspect of a person's self-image that depends upon social categories to which he/she belongs?

A) social identity
B) social identification
C) social differentiation
D) categorical differentiation
E) social categorization

Question 18

What is not part of the process of social identification?

A) the individual perceives him/herself in terms of membership in a distinct group
B) the individual's behaviour is influenced by the norms of the group
C) the individual conforms to perceived stereotypes associated with the group
D) the individual's behaviour is influenced by the attitudes of the group
E) all of the above are part of the social identification process

Question 19

Social differentiation refers to:

A) those aspects of a person's self-image which depend upon the social categories and groups to which he/she belongs
B) the process whereby individuals define themselves with respect to other people
C) the process whereby groups are classified relative to other groups
D) the process whereby we exaggerate similarities among members of the same category and exaggerate differences between different categories
E) the process whereby individuals emphasize their differences from members of other social groups

Question 20

According to the text, a feature has diagnostic value if:

A) it is common to both in-group and out-group members
B) it is important to an individual's self-concept
C) it is used to create categories
D) it increases intra-category differences and reduces inter-category differences
E) it is used to reduce differences within categories

Question 21

The process whereby we exaggerate similarities among members of the same category, and exaggerate differences among members of different categories is termed:

A) social identification
B) social differentiation
C) cross-categorization
D) in-group/out-group categorization
E) schematic categorization

Question 22

Suppose Tom, a 20-year-old black student, is participating in a social psychology experiment. The experimenter hands Tom six pictures, three of young black males and three of elderly black males, and asks him to rate these pictures on a number of dimensions. What feature has diagnostic value in this study?

A) age
B) race
C) gender
D) b and c
E) all of the above

Question 23

A person who shares one category with us but who is also part of an out-group with regard to another category is:

A) polarized
B) schematically categorized
C) diverged
D) converged
E) cross-categorized

Question 24

Which of the following is likely to lead to a decrease in social differentiation?

A) group polarization
B) social identification
C) schematic categorization
D) cross-categorization
E) categorical differentiation

Question 25

Crossed categories can lead to:

A) increased social identification
B) increased categorical differentiation
C) decreased social differentiation
D) a and b
E) a and c

Question 26

Research on cross-categorization has shown that:

A) crossed categories can lead to decreased social differentiation
B) crossed categories can lead to increased social differentiation
C) because individuals belong to many different categories, most people are always on the same side of a conflict
D) since individuals belong to many different categories, it is unlikely that a given set of people will be on the same side of every conflict
E) both a and d

Question 27

We are confronted with the affluence or wealth of another person and remark 'money doesn't buy happiness'. This is an example of:

A) extreme jealousy
B) rationalization
C) envy
D) redefinition of the social field
E) resentment

Question 28

When members of a group feel a sense of inferiority in relation to another group, they may:

A) attempt to assimilate
B) distinguish themselves so the comparison is not valid
C) try to avoid comparison
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 29

Why would a prisoner and a guard in a penitentiary not constitute a group?

A) they do not share common goals
B) they do not consider themselves as part of a group
C) they do not have an enduring relationship that occurs within a relatively stable framework
D) both a and b
E) both a and c

Question 30

What criterion is not part of the definition of a group?

A) the interactors must mutually influence each other
B) the interactors must be task-oriented
C) the members must interact in a relatively long-term and stable relationship
D) the members must share a goal or purpose
E) the individual members must believe that they are part of a group

Question 31

Which of the following factors does not contribute to the cohesiveness of a group?

A) the degree to which members are personally attracted to each other
B) the uniqueness of a given individual's contribution to the group
C) the extent to which the group goals are in line with individual goals
D) the extent to which the group is able to satisfy members' needs
E) all of the above factors contribute to group cohesiveness

Question 32

Cohesiveness within a group is likely to increase if:

A) there is some kind of external threat to the group
B) the group is made up of individuals who have a high need for affiliation
C) the group is in competition with other groups
D) the group has a clearly specified structure
E) both a and c

Question 33

Which of the following statements is true regarding group cohesiveness?

A) cohesiveness refers to all the factors which contribute to the members' desire to belong to their particular group
B) cohesiveness is determined solely by the interrelationships among the group members
C) in a task-oriented group, high cohesiveness always results in increased productivity of the group
D) high cohesiveness in a group can lead to decreased communication and participation
E) cohesiveness is solely determined by the relationship of the group's goals to the individual members' goals

Question 34

Group cohesiveness can lead to:

A) harmony
B) solidarity
C) high productivity
D) low productivity
E) all of the above are true

Question 35

Which of the following statements regarding group roles is true?

A) roles may be organizational and formal with respect to group tasks
B) a socio-emotional specialist plays an important informal role in social groups
C) roles may be informal and gradually evolve over a number of interactions
D) in any group, there are differences in status among the members
E) all of the above

Question 36

Which of the following factors is more characteristic of task-oriented groups than it is of social groups?

A) a clearly specified structure
B) the existence of a task-specialist
C) the existence of a social-emotional specialist
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 37

According to the text, group norms are:

A) rigid rules that tell group members how to behave in many social situations
B) explicit rules about the acceptable behaviours and attitudes in a group
C) beliefs that are shared by the members regarding acceptable and non-acceptable behaviours in the group
D) rules that specify the nature of interaction between high and low status members of the group
E) implicit rules that specify when a group member can be ostracized

Question 38

Which of the following statements is true regarding group norms?

A) norms are explicit rules about the acceptable behaviours and attitudes in a group
B) norms are beliefs that are shared by the members regarding acceptable behaviours in the group
C) violation of group norms leads to immediate ostracism
D) norms are rigid rules that tell group members how to behave in many social situations
E) none of the above

Question 39

Group beliefs include matters of

A) values
B) ideologies
C) group identity
D) morality
E) all of the above

Question 40

Siege syndrome has the following result(s):

A) it prepares group members for the worst
B) it protects members from disappointment
C) it heightens morale
D) it mobilizes energy for conflicts
E) all of the above

Question 41

High status of a group member derives from:

A) helping the group achieve its goals
B) personal popularity
C) a recognized role in the group
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 42

The risky shift effect refers to:

A) the fact that group decisions are frequently less cautious than the initial decisions made by the individuals
B) the shift from a risky position to a more cautious one by members of a group
C) the process whereby a group changes from a more cautious decision to the one involving greater risks
D) the change in the composition of a group from a predominantly cautious to a more risk taking majority
E) the likelihood of a group making a more risky decision when members are required to reach a consensus without prior discussion on the issue

Question 43

The fact that group decisions are frequently less cautious than the initial decisions made by the individuals can be ascribed to:

A) the group effect
B) the minimum probability effect
C) the let's-go-down-together effect
D) the risky shift effect
E) none of the above

Question 44

What is the explanation offered for the risky shift effect?

A) diffusion of responsibility
B) the necessity to reach a consensus
C) initial divergence of opinion among group members
D) the positive value placed on risk-taking in Western society
E) both a and d

Question 45

Studies of the risky shift phenomenon have shown that:

A) in some situations, there may be a shift away from risk if the initial positions of the group members lie in that direction
B) a shift can occur even when no risk is involved
C) the shift toward risk is only a specific example of group-induced attitude polarization
D) both a and c
E) all of the above

Question 46

Group discussion and the necessity of reaching a group consensus have been suggested as the main factors in eliciting:

A) the minimum probability effect
B) the risky shift phenomenon
C) group-induced attitude polarization
D) the group effect
E) cohesiveness

Question 47

Which of the following statements is true regarding group-induced attitude polarization?

A) group interaction enhances the effect
B) majority opinion is an important factor in this phenomenon
C) attitudes may shift to a more risky or less risky position
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 48

Studies of the risky shift eventually led to identification of:

A) the social facilitation effect
B) social comparison theory
C) group induced attitude polarization
D) social differentiation theory
E) the social loafing hypothesis

Question 49

According to the social comparison interpretation of group-induced attitude polarization:

A) individuals try to see themselves and present themselves in a favourable light to others
B) individuals believe the group to be more extreme than it actually is
C) groups become more extreme because individuals expect them to be extreme
D) a group shift will occur only if arguments which have a persuasive effect on the individual are presented
E) individuals shift their decisions in the direction of majority opinion because they are conforming to a perceived group norm

Question 50

The view that individuals shift their decisions in the direction of the majority because they are conforming to a perceived group norm is suggested by:

A) the social identification explanation
B) the social comparison interpretation
C) the persuasive argumentation explanation
D) social categorization theory
E) social differentiation theory

Question 51

According to the text, which of the following statements is true?

A) a 'risky' person in a cautious group will not shift in the majority direction
B) subjects in the group must actively interact with one another for the risky shift effect to occur
C) group polarization is evident in such situations as group aggression and bystander intervention
D) both a and b
E) all of the above

Question 52

Which of the following is one of the explanations postulated to account for the occurrence of group-induced attitude polarization?

A) social identification
B) social facilitation
C) social categorization
D) categorical differentiation
E) all of the above

Question 53

According to the persuasive argumentation interpretation of group-induced attitude polarization, the extent to which an individual changes his/her position depends on:

A) the motivation to conform to the group's stereotype
B) the initial decision taken by the individual
C) the length of the group discussion
D) the proportion of members supporting the majority opinion
E) none of the above

Question 54

Which of the following statements is not true regarding group-induced attitude polarization?

A) majority opinion is an important factor in this phenomenon
B) attitudes may shift to a more risky or a less risky position
C) group interaction enhances the effect
D) a decision shift can occur in the absence of any risk
E) the effect is strictly a laboratory phenomenon

Question 55

One explanation that has been postulated for group-induced attitude change is based on the premise that individuals attempt to present themselves in a favourable light to others. This is an example of a __________ explanation.

A) persuasive argumentation
B) social identification
C) social comparison
D) social categorization
E) none of the above

Question 56

Which of the explanations of group-induced attitude polarization is most accurate?

A) social identification
B) social comparison
C) persuasive argumentation
D) social differentiation
E) it depends on the particular situation and the personalities of the individuals involved

Question 57

In the study by Mackie (1986), polarization was found to occur only when the source of information was perceived to be from within the in-group and resulted from the subjects conforming to the 'extreme' group norm. This study demonstrates the applicability of the __________ model.

A) social comparison
B) social identification
C) social differentiation
D) persuasive argumentation
E) group cohesiveness

Question 58

Which of the following is true concerning the concept of power?

A) power based on physical strength is the most primitive form of power
B) power refers to the ability of a person or group to influence another person or group in the desired direction
C) power distribution is an important characteristic of many groups and of individuals within groups
D) both a and b
E) all of the above

Question 59

Which of the following is not true concerning the concept of power within a group context?

A) power refers to the ability of an individual or group to influence another individual or group in a desired direction
B) power distribution is important in task-oriented groups
C) there are a number of different types of power, all of which are mutually exclusive
D) power based on physical strength is the most primitive form of power
E) power distribution is an important characteristic of all groups and of the individuals within these groups

Question 60

Individuals follow orders because it is the appropriate thing to do and because they want to act in the way the leader would act. This kind of power is an example of:

A) reciprocal power
B) legitimate power
C) referent power
D) reward power
E) expert power

Question 61

According to the text, which of the following has been identified as an important type of power?

A) referent power
B) expert power
C) legitimate power
D) informational power
E) all of the above

Question 62

Reward power refers to:

A) the influence one person has over another because of past favours
B) situations in which individuals follow orders because they have internalized respect for a designated authority
C) cases where individuals follow orders in order to get what they desire
D) instances where individuals follow orders because they want to be like those they admire
E) orders followed in order to avoid unpleasant consequences

Question 63

What kind of power might a practising lawyer most likely have over a student aspiring to get into law school?

A) reward power
B) reciprocal power
C) referent power
D) coercive power
E) a, b and c

Question 64

Which of the following is false?

A) informational power has been identified as the most important type of power
B) the various forms of power discussed in the text are mutually exclusive
C) the strength of the norms for reciprocal power are the same across persons and situations
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 65

Stahelski and Frost (1989) measured how often the various forms of power were used in three different organizations. They found that:

A) in all three organizations, referent and reward power were used less often than the other types of power
B) legitimate, reward and coercive power were predominantly used in all three organizations
C) as the number of employees supervised increased, the use of coercive power increased
D) as the number of employees supervised increased, the use of referent and reward power increased
E) the largest of the three organizations employed significantly more legitimate power than the smaller organizations

Question 66

The findings of Stahelski and Frost's (1989) study suggest that:

A) legitimate and reward power may be the most important types of power in organizations
B) the number of subordinates might determine the willingness to use coercive power
C) expert power is useful only in structured organizations
D) the number of employees does not appear to influence which type of power might be employed more often
E) reciprocal power has a tremendous influence on production norms in organizations

Question 67

According to the text, legitimate power refers to:

A) power based on the possession of important and special knowledge
B) the influence of one person over another on the basis of past favours
C) the type of influence in which individuals follow orders because they have internalized respect for a designated authority
D) the kind of power through which one person can reward another for complying
E) power based on a person's ability to influence another person in the desired direction

Question 68

When individuals follow orders because they have internalized respect for a designated authority, to what kind of power does this refer?

A) reciprocal power
B) informational power
C) coercive power
D) legitimate power
E) referent power

Question 69

When one person has influence over another because of past favours, this type of power is termed:

A) reciprocal power
B) coercive power
C) referent power
D) conditional power
E) reward power

Question 70

What kind(s) of power might a mother have over her young children?

A) expert power
B) reward power
C) coercive power
D) legitimate power
E) all of the above

Question 71

Power over others in an institutionalized setting leads to:

A) good working relationships
B) psychological distance from subordinates
C) devaluation of efforts of subordinates
D) rewards to subordinates
E) b and c

Question 72

Which of the following statements is not true regarding the study by Kipnis (1972) in which the relationship between individuals who hold power and those subject to this power was investigated?

A) individuals who were given the power were more likely to want to meet the employees after the study was over
B) subjects with power made more attempts to influence workers than those without it
C) only very few subjects with power relied solely on persuasion
D) subjects with power devalued the worth of their worker more than those without power
E) both a and c

Question 73

The results of Kipnis' (1972) study suggest that power over others leads to:

A) increased psychological distance from them
B) devaluation of the efforts of those who are subject to the power
C) a willingness to appreciate and act on subordinates' problems
D) both a and b
E) none of the above can be inferred from that study

Question 74

Based on the dimensions found by Rush and Russell, the active exercise of leadership duties falls under the __________ dimension.

A) consideration
B) devaluation
C) role assumption
D) initiating structure
E) production emphasis

Question 75

Research has shown that women are more likely to use __________ power, while men are more likely to use __________ power.

A) informational, legitimate
B) legitimate, expert
C) referent, expert
D) reward, coercive
E) expert, coercive

Question 76

Which of the following is not one of Rush and Russell's (1988) dimensions of leader behaviour?

A) devaluation
B) consideration
C) initiating structure
D) production emphasis
E) role assumption

Question 77

If a leader is to be effective, it is important to:

A) maintain output
B) be concerned for followers
C) let followers know what is expected
D) be liked by everyone
E) a, b and c

Question 78

Which of the following characteristics has not been associated with leadership?

A) gender
B) physical size
C) health
D) physical attractiveness
E) all of the above have been associated with leadership

Question 79

Francis Galton, in an effort to find the determinants of leadership, investigated the hereditary background of 'great men' and suggested that:

A) good leaders are made
B) a very strong characteristic of leadership is gender
C) good leaders are born, not made
D) leaders are usually more intelligent that followers
E) both personality traits and situations determine who will emerge as a leader

Question 80

Which of the following is a characteristic of the great person (trait) approach to leadership?

A) talkativeness
B) intelligence
C) physical attractiveness
D) both b and c
E) all of the above