Deck 3: Test Norms

Question 1

The main purpose of norms for a test is to aid -

A) reliability
B) efficiency
C) interpretation
D) cost

Answer 1

C

Question 2

The most immediate result obtained from a test is the ___.

A) raw score
B) percentile
C) z-score
D) standard score

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Descriptive statistics help us to ___.

A) draw conclusions about the population based on the sample.
B) summarize raw data in order to understand it better.
C) determine the appropriate tests to use.
D) report information about specific test takers.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

The most typical way to organize raw data is with a ___.

A) table
B) frequency distribution
C) diagram
D) standard score system

Question 5

The point in a distribution that divides data into two groups having equal frequencies is called the ___.

A) median
B) mean
C) mode
D) midrange

Question 6

Which is NOT one of the characteristics of the normal distribution?

A) symmetrical
B) unimodal
C) asymptotic tails
D) skewed

Question 7

The numbers to which we apply statistical techniques such as measures of central tendency or variability are referred to as ___.

A) variables
B) raw data
C) inferences
D) parameters

Question 8

Classification of foods into categories of salty, bitter, and sweet constitutes what kind of scale?

A) nominal
B) ordinal
C) interval
D) ratio

Question 9

A leptokurtic distribution is one that is ____ than a normal distribution.

A) more jagged
B) flatter
C) more peaked
D) smoother

Question 10

The three commonly used measures of central tendency are ___.

A) normal curve, kurtosis, and skewness
B) variability, range, and standard deviation
C) mean, median, and mode
D) nominal, ordinal, and interval

Question 11

The range of a distribution is the difference between the ___.

A) mean and median
B) population mean and sample mean
C) first and last scores
D) largest and smallest scores

Question 12

Which is NOT a measure of variability or dispersion we studied?

A) variance
B) standard deviation
C) index of dispersion
D) interquartile range

Question 13

What important property sets the ratio scale apart from the interval scale? The ratio scale has ___.

A) a true zero point
B) accurate rankings
C) equally spaced intervals
D) quantification

Question 14

Ranking of football teams or tennis players implies use of what kind of scale?

A) nominal
B) ordinal
C) interval
D) ratio

Question 15

A platykurtic distribution is one that is _____ than a normal distribution.

A) more jagged
B) B. flatter
C) more peaked
D) smoother

Question 16

When a frequency distribution has a long tail to the left and a bulge in scores to the right, the distribution can be described as ___.

A) leptokurtic.
B) negatively skewed.
C) platykurtic.
D) positively skewed.

Question 17

The tails of the theoretical normal distribution continue to infinity approaching the base but never reach it. Thus, we call the tails ___.

A) asymptotic
B) symmetrical
C) leptokurtic
D) unimodal

Question 18

What is the basic definition of a z-score? (M is the mean, S is the standard deviation and X is a score for the variable.)

A) (X - M)/S
B) (M - X)/S
C) S/(X - M)
D) (X - M) + S

Question 19

The mean of a set of z-scores is ___.

A) 100
B) 0
C) 1
D) dependent on the shape of the distribution

Question 20

The standard deviation of a set of z-scores is ___.

A) 100
B) 0
C) 1
D) dependent on the shape of the distribution

Question 21

The distribution of z-scores has a mean = ___ and SD = ___.

A) 1…0
B) 0…1
C) 1…1
D) 0…10

Question 22

In a standard score system with M = 500 and SD = 100, based on a normal distribution, what is the percentile rank for a score of 500?

A) 0
B) 1
C) 50
D) can't tell without more information

Question 23

In a normally distributed set of standard scores which has a mean of 500 and standard deviation of 100, what score corresponds to a z-score of 1.00?

A) 501
B) 510
C) 600
D) 601

Question 24

The 25th percentile indicates the point in a distribution _____ which 25% of the cases fall.

A) below
B) above
C) between
D) at

Question 25

We convert a set of raw scores into a new score system with a convenient mean and SD. The new system is called a set of ___.

A) z-scores
B) standard scores
C) whole numbers
D) "new-raw" scores

Question 26

The 75th percentile indicates the point in the distribution _____ which 75% of the cases fall.

A) below
B) above
C) between
D) on

Question 27

In a normally distributed set of scores, which of the following differences in percentile units will correspond to the smallest difference in raw score units?

A) 50-55
B) 10-15
C) 70-75
D) 94-99

Question 28

One of the practical problems of using percentile ranks for reporting scores is ___.

A) remembering whether 1 or 99 is the best score
B) distinguishing them from stanine scores
C) calculating them
D) distinguishing them from percent-right scores

Question 29

Someone tells you that the raw scores on a test have been converted to a score system with M = 50 and SD = 10. This sounds like a set of ________.

A) z-scores
B) deviations
C) correlations
D) standard scores

Question 30

Standard scores are expressed in terms of the _____ and _____.

A) mean…variance
B) median…mode
C) standard deviation…variance
D) mean…standard deviation

Question 31

Which is NOT a necessary characteristic of a set of standard scores?

A) the mean is set at a standard value
B) the standard deviation is set at a standard value
C) the distribution follows the normal curve
D) the value of any score expresses its relative location in the distribution

Question 32

The "correction for guessing" sometimes applied to multiple-choice tests assumes that examinees will ___.

A) Guess at all the items in the test
B) get some items right by chance
C) not guess at any items
D) score near 50% correct

Question 33

On a multiple-choice test, we determine the number of wrong answers and subtract a fraction of that number from the number right to arrive at the final score. This is an example of using the ___.

A) Rights minus wrongs scoring formula
B) Correction for guessing
C) Reverse order formula
D) Penalty for wrong scoring method

Question 34

What is the name of the score that results from item response theory?

A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Sigma
D) Theta

Question 35

What is the main reason we develop norms for tests?

A) They are more reliable.
B) They are more valid.
C) Raw scores are hard to interpret.
D) Raw scores have smaller ranges.

Question 36

The "proficiency levels" reported for statewide assessment programs provide an example of ___.

A) criterion-referenced interpretation
B) percentiles
C) grade equivalents
D) standard scores

Question 37

Which is a common system for reporting "proficiency levels" on contemporary achievement tests?

A) acceptable, unacceptable
B) high, middle, low
C) advanced, proficient, basic, below basic
D) 10-point scale, ranging from "not proficient" to "proficient"

Question 38

You wish to divide a total group into four subgroups by level of test score. How many "cut scores" must you have?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

Question 39

A z-score of -2.00 corresponds to what percentile?

A) 2
B) 20
C) 80
D) 98

Question 40

In a standard score system with M = 50 and SD = 10, a score of 40 corresponds to what percentile?

A) 4
B) 16
C) 24
D) 44

Question 41

In a standard score system with M = 100 and SD = 15, a score of 130 corresponds to what percentile?

A) 2
B) 60
C) 98
D) 145

Question 42

In a standard score system with M = 100 and SD = 15, a percentile of 90 will be at approximately what standard score?

A) 95
B) 105
C) 110
D) 120

Question 43

In a standard score system with M = 50 and SD = 10, which of these standard scores will be closest to the 20^th percentile?

A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 60

Question 44

Which type of norm suffers from a marked inequality of units at different points along the scale?

A) T-scores
B) percentiles
C) standard scores
D) NCEs

Question 45

Which of these is NOT a type of standard score?

A) grade equivalents
B) stanines
C) T-scores
D) normal curve equivalents

Question 46

Stanines are a standard score system with a mean (M) of _____ and a standard deviation (SD) of approximately _____.

A) 50…21
B) 5…2
C) 500…100
D) 100…15

Question 47

Abigail got a score of 550 on the SAT-Math and 530 on GRE-Quantitative. These scores are types of ___.

A) raw scores
B) normal curve equivalents
C) percentiles
D) standard scores

Question 48

What are the mean and standard deviation, respectively, for the T-score system?

A) 50, 10
B) 500, 100
C) 0, 1
D) 100, 15

Question 49

Pete's MA is 8 years and his CA is 10 years. What is his ratio IQ?

A) 80
B) 20
C) 120
D) 45

Question 50

Grazia's mental age (MA) is 18. Her chronological age (CA) is15. What is her ratio IQ?

A) 100
B) 120
C) 150
D) 180

Question 51

The deviation IQ obtained from contemporary intelligence tests is a type of ___.

A) mental age
B) ratio IQ
C) standard score
D) stanine

Question 52

The normal curve equivalent (NCE) system matches the percentile system at which three values?

A) 1, 50, 99
B) 10, 50, 90
C) 25, 75, 100
D) 25, 50, 75

Question 53

What are the mean and approximate standard deviation, respectively, of the normal curve equivalent (NCE) system?

A) 100, 15
B) 500, 100
C) 50, 15
D) 50, 20

Question 54

The normal curve equivalent (NCE) is a type of ___.

A) percentile
B) IQ
C) grade equivalent
D) standard score

Question 55

Which type of norm is used only for achievement tests?

A) mental ages
B) standard scores
C) percentiles
D) grade equivalents

Question 56

When the growth curve for a trait becomes flat, that is, no longer increases, which type of norm becomes meaningless?

A) percentiles
B) standard scores
C) stanines
D) age equivalents

Question 57

Annika (who is just two years old) has the physical strength of a ten year old. This is an example of using what type of norm?

A) grade equivalent
B) age equivalent
C) standard score
D) percentile

Question 58

Grade equivalents are commonly used with ___.

A) achievement tests
B) personality tests
C) attitude/interest inventories
D) vocational inventories

Question 59

Uncontrolled standard deviations are a problem for which of these norms?

A) percentiles
B) stanines
C) grade equivalents
D) T-scores

Question 60

The Lexile score is used to indicate ___.

A) A percentile in a norm group
B) Difficulty level of reading material
C) Mathematical proficiency
D) A legal use of tests

Question 61

The GED Ready test yields a three tier reporting system with these levels:

A) Likely to Pass, Not Likely to Pass, Too Close to Call
B) Good, Medium, Low
C) Very high, Moderately high, Not very high
D) A-level, C-level, F-level

Question 62

A norm based on testing individuals who are readily available for testing is called a ___.

A) convenience norm
B) hands-on norm
C) representative norm
D) non-applicable norm

Question 63

Norms for tests like the SAT, GRE, and ACT are based on all individuals who actually took the test within some specified period of time. These are called ___.

A) high level norms
B) user norms
C) low level norms
D) institutional norms

Question 64

How will the degree of variability in institutional norms generally compare with the degree of variability in individual norms? The institutional norm's variability will usually be ___.

A) greater
B) less
C) the same
D) more for ability tests, less for personality tests

Question 65

Olivia got 36 out of 50 right on the spelling test. We conclude that this is horrible performance. What type of interpretation does this conclusion illustrate?

A) norm-referenced
B) criterion-referenced
C) grade-specific referencing
D) achievement-referencing

Question 66

Interpretation of scores in relation to some absolute standard of performance rather than in relation to performance of a norm group is called _______ interpretation.

A) standard-referenced
B) interpretive-referenced
C) externally-referenced
D) criterion-referenced

Question 67

Criterion-referenced interpretation of test performance depends on having ___.

A) multiple-choice items
B) at least some free-response items
C) a well-defined content domain
D) an ill-defined content domain

Question 68

User norm groups contain norms based on ___.

A) a group that is representative of the segment of the national population for whom the test is intended
B) a group that is readily available for testing
C) whatever groups actually took the test, usually within some specified time.
D) averages for individuals within institutions

Question 69

Which of the following is a criterion-referenced interpretation of a test score?

A) Answering only 60% of the test questions correct is unsatisfactory.
B) Performing better than 50% of the class is average.
C) A test score in the top 10% of the class is above average.
D) Performing at a sixth grade math level is normal for an advanced fifth grader.

Question 70

The stability of a norm depends primarily on what characteristic of the norm group?

A) size
B) geographic distribution
C) gender balance
D) socioeconomic status

Question 71

The most important thing to determine about a norm group is its ___.

A) size
B) racial balance
C) gender balance
D) representativeness

Question 72

Which is NOT a type of information often used to judge the representativeness of a norm group?

A) age
B) gender
C) geographic region
D) number of cases

Question 73

Information used to describe a norm group is important for our judgment about the representativeness of the norm group to the extent that the information is -

A) related to the trait measured by the test
B) independent of the trait measured by the test
C) dependent on the size of the norm group
D) easy to obtain

Question 74

In the more sophisticated norming programs for tests, what type of sampling method is usually employed?

A) simple random sampling
B) convenience sampling
C) stratified random sampling
D) stratified cluster sampling

Question 75

According to the text, stanines are used mainly with which of these types of tests?

A) Projective techniques
B) Personality inventories
C) Achievement tests
D) Individually administered intelligence tests

Question 76

Theta scores are developed from the interaction between examinee responses and _____.

A) Number of options in the items
B) Performance of other examinees
C) Characteristics of the items
D) Size of the norm group