Deck 14: Adaptive Immunity

Question 1

Adaptive immunity ____________. (Select all that apply)

A) serves as a third line of defense
B) uses B cells to directly eliminate pathogens
C) uses neutrophils to phagocytize pathogens
D) uses antibodies produced by T cells to indirectly eliminate pathogens

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Hallmark features of adaptive immunity include ____________. (Select all that apply)

A) consistent effector action
B) pathogen specificity
C) autoimmune initiation
D) enhanced or memory response with subsequent pathogen exposures

Answer 2

B,D

Question 3

The specific portion of a macromolecular antigen that binds a lymphocyte receptor and triggers an adaptive immune response is a(n) _____________.

A) hapten
B) immunogen
C) epitope
D) carrier

Answer 3

C

Question 4

An epitope ________. (Select all that apply)

A) is the nonspecific portion of an antigen that triggers an adaptive response
B) is also known as an antigenic determinant
C) associates with a lymphocyte receptor in a lock-and-key fashion
D) is the portion of an antigen that is recognized by the lymphocyte receptor

Question 5

Which of the following antigens would be most immunogenic in a human host?

A) A polysaccharide, such as starch, composed of repeating glucose units.
B) A monosaccharide, such as glucose.
C) An amino acid, such as proline
D) A protein, such as bovine serum albumin

Question 6

Factors influencing antigen immunogenicity include all of the following except ___________.

A) molecular complexity because complex molecules possess multiple epitopes for binding lymphocyte receptors.
B) molecular size since haptens are too small to bind lymphocyte receptors and initiate a response.
C) molecular complexity because highly repetitive macromolecules can be easily degraded into monomers too small to illicit a lymphocyte response.
D) molecular complexity because simple molecules such as glycoproteins are easily degraded to haptens

Question 7

Which of the following statements about conjugate vaccines is false?

A) They are made by covalently binding large carrier sugar fragments to small proteins.
B) This is the process used to produce an effective vaccine against Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Making a conjugate antigen is necessary to increase immunogenicity.
D) This process allows non-immunogenic molecules like carbohydrates to generate effective vaccines.

Question 8

B and T lymphocytes mature in the ______________.

A) lymph nodes
B) spleen
C) primary lymphoid tissues
D) secondary lymphoid tissues

Question 9

Indicate the correct sequence of events in the maturation of B and T lymphocytes.
1) Immature T cells in thymus and immature B cells in bone marrow undergo rapid mitosis under the influence of specific cytokines
2) Segments of genes that produce lymphocyte receptors are spliced and rearranged to produce almost 10¹⁸ different receptors.
3) Cells failing to produce a functional receptor are eliminated via apoptosis
4) Antigen receptors on immature T and B cells are screened during positive selection so that only useful receptors are generated.
5) After passing positive selection, T and B cells complete maturation process and start their patrol of the body for the presence of pathogens.

A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
C) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
D) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5

Question 10

How do autoimmune diseases like rheumatoid arthritis, Type I diabetes and Multiple Sclerosis develop?

A) During maturation, negative selection fails to eliminate Class II MCH phagocytes with autoreactive receptors at checkpoint 1.
B) During maturation, negative selection fails to eliminate lymphocytes with autoreactive receptors at checkpoint 2.
C) There is an error during clonal expansion that generates an over-abundance of non-specific lymphocytes.
D) During clonal deletion, the T_REG cells that suppress the development of autoimmune diseases are accidentally eliminated.

Question 11

During lymphocyte maturation, apoptosis occurs if an immature lymphocyte ___________. (Select all that apply)

A) expresses a receptor specific for an antigen to which the host is already protected
B) fails to express an antigen receptor
C) binds strongly to antigens during the positive selection screening process
D) binds autoantigens during the positive selection screening process

Question 12

Clonal selection and expansion involves ____________. (Select all that apply)

A) binding of pathogen to antigen receptors on lymphocytes, initiating rapid lymphocyte mitosis
B) the generation of a lymphocyte army all having the same epitope specificity
C) eventual pathogen elimination by effector cells
D) future host protection by memory cells disseminated throughout the body and ready to respond to pathogen invasion

Question 13

Place the events of clonal selection and expansion in the correct order.
1) Differentiation of cells into a formidable army of effector cells.
2) The binding of an antigen to a preprogrammed receptor selects the lymphocyte that undergoes rapid cell division.
3) Cytokine secretion leads to activation of pathogen-eliminating mechanisms.
4) Memory cells disseminate throughout the body and wait to eliminate future invading pathogens.

A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 4, 3, 2, 1
C) 2, 1, 4, 3
D) 2, 4, 3, 1

Question 14

Cytokines secreted by activated effector lymphocytes trigger pathogen elimination by _________. (Select all that apply)

A) increased inflammation
B) antibody production
C) lysis of viral-infected cells
D) eosinophil activation

Question 15

When clonal selection and expansion occurs in a lymph node _________. (Select all that apply)

A) the pathogen-selected lymphocyte undergoes rapid mitosis
B) the lymph node fills with pathogen-fighting clones
C) the lymph node enlarges and becomes tender
D) the memory cells generated remain within the lymph node

Question 16

The benefit of memory cells is their ________. (Select all that apply)

A) rapid response with subsequent pathogen invasions
B) ability to provide immunity
C) continuous cytokine secretion to stimulate inflammation
D) on-going production of antibodies

Question 17

The Major Histocompatibility Complex is a ________.

A) surface protein that functions as a self-marker
B) series of proteins on the surface of a T cell that bind antigen and trigger an intracellular signal
C) series of complement proteins that form the membrane attack complex
D) set of tightly-linked genes that express surface proteins essential for T cell activation

Question 18

A Class I MHC molecule is found on the surface of ________. (Select al that apply)

A) red blood cells
B) skin cells
C) liver cells
D) kidney cells

Question 19

The function of Class II MHC molecules is to ____________________.

A) promote opsonization
B) initiate the alternative complement cascade
C) enhance cytokine secretion by memory cells
D) facilitate antigen fragment binding to T cell receptors, initiating an adaptive response

Question 20

A ____________ is the complex of a MHC molecule with an antigen fragment and interacts with T cell receptors.

A) CD4
B) C4b
C) neoantigen
D) hapten

Question 21

Transplant failure can be reduced by ____________. (Select all that apply)

A) matching the Class I MHC molecules between donor and recipient
B) matching the Class II MHC molecules between donor and recipient
C) maximizing CD4 levels expressed on T cells
D) minimizing CD45Rc levels expressed on T cells

Question 22

Which of the following T cell subsets express CD4 glycoproteins. (Select all that apply)

A) Helper T cells
B) Regulatory T cells
C) Cytotoxic T cells
D) Natural Killer T cells

Question 23

__________ eliminate virus-infected cells, cancer cells, and foreign cells.

A) T_H1 cells
B) T_H2
C) T_C cells
D) T_R cells

Question 24

__________ inhibit autoimmunity.

A) T_H1 cells
B) T_H2
C) T_C cells
D) T_R cells

Question 25

__________ activate eosinophils.

A) T_H1 cells
B) T_H2
C) T_C cells
D) T_R cells

Question 26

__________ stimulate IgG production.

A) T_H1 cells
B) T_H2
C) T_C cells
D) T_R cells

Question 27

Natural killer T cells __________. (Select all that apply)

A) share several common surface glycoproteins with NK cells
B) activate T_H2 cells
C) mediate immune responses against Mycobacterium tuberculosis and other pathogens with mycolic acid cell walls
D) are the largest subset of T cells

Question 28

Antigen-processing pathways correlate with the location of what cellular feature?

A) Class I MHC molecules
B) Class II MHC molecules
C) the foreign protein
D) the neoantigen

Question 29

A proteasome is ____________.

A) the cleft in the top of a Class II MHC molecule
B) the channel in the ER that transports protein fragments inside to bind with Class I MHC molecules, forming a neoantigen
C) a phagolysosome
D) a tube-like protein complex that unfolds and degrades foreign cytosolic proteins to generate the peptide fragments of neoantigens

Question 30

A phagocytized antigen _______________.

A) is processed by a proteasome
B) undergoes enzymatic degradation before binding with a Class II MHC molecule
C) will be presented to a T_H cell once processed and combined with a Class I MHC molecule
D) is usually a virus

Question 31

Adaptive responses by T cells are directed at _______________.

A) intact pathogens
B) small pathogenic epitopes
C) neoantigens
D) coreceptors

Question 32

The most common antigen-presenting cells (APCs) are _______________. (Select all that apply)

A) dendritic cells
B) macrophages
C) Kupffer cells
D) B cells

Question 33

Indicate the correct order of events in the processing of phagocytized antigens.
1) CD4 coreceptor attaches to the neoantigen.
2) a transport vesicle from the ER forms carrying a Class II MHC molecule.
3) degradation of phagocytized proteins in a phagolysosome.
4) neoantigen binding to the receptor of a T_H cell.
5) fusion of ER vesicle and phagolysosome allows neoantigen formation

A) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
B) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
C) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
D) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1

Question 34

Which of the following are T cell receptor complex components? (Select all that apply)

A) Cd3
B) a variable region
C) CD3
D) sIg

Question 35

__________ have long cytoplasmic tails to initiate intracellular signaling following neoantigen binding to a T cell receptor? (Select all that apply)

A) α/β chains
B) CD3 chains
C) zeta chains
D) CR2

Question 36

In the process of associative recognition, __________________.

A) an APC must display both CD4 and CD8 coreceptors
B) the neoantigen is bound by both the TCR and a coreptor
C) both the TCR variable region and cytosolic domains must bind the neoantigen
D) the MHC portion of the neoantigen binds the CD3 portion of the T cell receptor while the processed antigenic fragment binds the coreceptor

Question 37

The hallmark feature of T-cell activation is __________________.

A) the unique binding of the TCR to a processed antigen
B) the unique binding of the TCR to a neoantigen
C) the combination of associative recognition plus signal transmission
D) initiation of signal activation

Question 38

In the early stages of T-cell activation, __________________.

A) T cells are retained in lymphoid organs, allowing the cytokine exposure necessary to continue activation
B) enhanced T cell migration to peripheral sites of injury and infection following cytokine exposure
C) the T cells transiently secrete IL-2
D) the T cells bind IL-2 with high affinity to inhibit apoptosis

Question 39

Which of the following statements about the completion of T-cell activation is false?

A) IL-2 signaling is the ultimate trigger for clonal expansion
B) The number of T cells that target a specific epitope rises to about 1 of every 3 lymphocytes
C) It takes approximately one month to produce the target-specific T cell army
D) T_H1, T_H2 and T_C cell initiate their effector activities

Question 40

T effector cells _____________________. (Select all that apply)

A) effectively eliminate infecting pathogens
B) are short-lived
C) form their fighting army so quickly upon pathogen invasion that the host never experiences symptoms
D) generate an army consisting of T_H1, T_H2 and T_C cells using a variety of effector mechanisms

Question 41

T cells not differentiating into effectors following clonal expansion _________. (Select all that apply)

A) disperse to form a system-wide army of epitope-specific cells
B) are responsible for providing immunity upon subsequent pathogen infection
C) become memory cells
D) develop enhanced phagocytic activity

Question 42

The fight against repeat pathogen invasions is more efficient with every encounter because _________. (Select all that apply)

A) the specific memory cells undergo another clonal expansion upon pathogen activation making an even larger army
B) the stem cell-like nature of memory cells performs self-renewal, gradually enlarging the army size between attacks
C) genomic repositioning within memory cells enhances their ability rapidly produce effector T cells
D) memory T cells convert to plasma cells

Question 43

Which of the following statement regarding the Mantoux Test used to detect patient exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis is false?

A) The test utilizes a small amount of protein derived from the pathogen that is subcutaneously injected in the forearm.
B) Patients with prior M. tuberculosis exposure experience an instantaneous reaction at the injection site
C) The delayed formation of an induration 5 mm in diameter or greater is interpreted as a positive response
D) A positive reaction represents the patient's memory T_H cells launching a strong attack against the M. tuberculosis epitopes.

Question 44

The indicated skin lesion denoting a positive Mantoux Test result is known as a(n) ______________.

A) bulla
B) hive
C) induration
D) papule

Question 45

_______________ is a class of molecule that can both chemically recognize the presence of antigens and participate in the resulting immune response. (Select all that apply)

A) CD4
B) TCR
C) MHC molecules
D) antibodies

Question 46

All of the following are antibody-mediated reactions except ______________.

A) direct neutralization of pathogens and their toxins
B) T cell activation
C) activate the classical complement pathway
D) promote opsonization

Question 47

Which of the following statements about antibodies is false?

A) The study of antibodies is known as serology because they are found in serum.
B) Antibodies are members of the alpha-globulin class of blood proteins.
C) Because they participate in immune responses, antibodies are also known as immunoglobulins.
D) The basic structure of an antibody is Y-shaped.

Question 48

Which part of an antibody participates in actual antigen binding?

A) the hinge region with its disulfide bridges.
B) the light chains of the constant region
C) the constant region of the heavy chains at the carboxy termini
D) the variable regions at the amine termini

Question 49

Correctly identify the indicated regions of this antibody molecule.

A) 1=light chain; 2=Fab; 3= variable region; 4=Fc
B) 1=variable region; 2=Fab; 3=Fc; 4=carboxy termini
C) 1=light chain; 2=hinge region; 3=Fab; 4=Amine termini
D) 1=light chain; 2=hinge region; 3=Fc; 4=constant region

Question 50

In the Coagulase Agglutination assay, __________. (Select all that apply)

A) the presence of Staphylococcus aureus is confirmed with a positive test
B) a positive reaction is represented by the coagulation of colored latex microbeads
C) the Fc region of anti-coagulase antibodies are conjugated to colored latex microbeads
D) bacteria are coated in agglutinin which leads to coagulase binding

Question 51

_______is the antibody class responsible for allergic responses and attacking parasitic worm infections.

A) IgG
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgE

Question 52

_______is the antibody class found in tears, colostrum, saliva and mucus.

A) IgG
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgE

Question 53

_______is the antibody class that crosses the placenta to provide passive immunity to neonates.

A) IgG
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgE

Question 54

The _______ antibody class is the largest.

A) IgG
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgE

Question 55

_______is the antibody class with the highest rate of production.

A) IgG
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgE

Question 56

_______is the antibody class produced as a dimer

A) IgG
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgE

Question 57

B cells work to eliminate ________________.

A) extracellular pathogens
B) intracellular pathogens
C) virally infected cells
D) transplanted tissues

Question 58

The B cell receptor __________________. (Select all that apply)

A) uses either a surface IgM or IgD antibody to permit specific pathogen binding
B) uses the long cytosolic tails of the surface IgM to transmit an intracellular signal
C) uses concurrent pathogen binding to CR2, a component of the coreceptor complex, for signal transduction
D) binds a neoantigen in the process of associative recognition

Question 59

T-dependent antigens____________________.

A) require T_C cell assistance for full B-cell activation
B) require T_H cell assistance for full B-cell activation
C) require T_C cross-linking for full B-cell activation
D) require T_R cross-linking for full B-cell activation

Question 60

B-cell growth factors are cytokines that _____________.

A) enhance B cell binding to an epitope
B) stimulate a B cell to generate memory cells
C) promote rapid mitosis in an activated B cell
D) facilitate antigen processing by B cells

Question 61

B-cell differentiation factors are cytokines that _____________. (Select all that apply)

A) cause some clones to differentiate into plasma cells
B) trigger enlargement of differentiating B cells
C) ultimately lead to enlargement of the endoplasmic reticulum
D) encourage secretion of large amounts of antibodies

Question 62

Which pair of ligands is not matched correctly?

A) CD40/CR2
B) CD40/CD40L
C) B7/CD28
D) TCR/neoantigen

Question 63

In humans, T-independent antigens ______________________.

A) are carbohydrate that generate weak and infrequent B-cell responses
B) never fail to produce memory cells
C) have many repetitive carbohydrate epitopes
D) are complex lipids

Question 64

___________ promotes rapid antigen phagocytosis.

A) Opsonization
B) Complement activation
C) Neutralization
D) Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

Question 65

___________ triggers microbial lysis and enhances inflammation.

A) Opsonization
B) Complement activation
C) Neutralization
D) Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

Question 66

___________ refers to antibody binding to pathogens and toxins, blocking their attachment to host cell receptors.

A) Opsonization
B) Complement activation
C) Neutralization
D) Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

Question 67

___________ causes antibody attachment to infected host cells, triggering release of granzymes that mediate cell death.

A) Opsonization
B) Complement activation
C) Neutralization
D) Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

Question 68

Maximum IgG antibodies against a specific pathogen are produced during _____________.

A) the primary immune response
B) a secondary immune response
C) transitional immune responses
D) B cell clonal expansion

Question 69

Patients suffering from an infection begin feeling better after about 5-7 days of their illness because _____________. (Select all that apply)

A) their antibody titer is peaking
B) multivalent IgM pentameric antibodies have eliminated a lot of the pathogens
C) antibody class switching is responsible for the production of a secondary wave of IgA secretion
D) antibody affinity is declining

Question 70

Affinity maturation _____________. (Select all that apply)

A) results from activation of only the memory B cells with the highest affinity receptors
B) may occur by somatic mutations generating antibodies with the same specificity but significantly higher binding affinity
C) is the production of antisera with increasingly higher pathogen affinity
D) results in highly efficient pathogen elimination during secondary immune responses