Deck 1: Foundations of Offender Rehabilitation

Question 1

According to Gainey, Payne, and O'Toole (2000), electronic monitoring demonstrates...

A) the nature of punishment
B) the role of social bonds
C) a sense of trust in the offender by society
D) society's acceptance of non-custodial sanctions

Answer 1

C

Question 2

According to Differential Association Theory, there is a strong association between the aetiology of offending behaviour and

A) cultural factors
B) social disadvantage
C) social learning
D) attachment

Answer 2

B

Question 3

The tendency of towards deviancy as a function of frequency of association with others who encourage norm violation is an element of

A) social learning theory
B) social bond theory
C) differential association theory
D) differential reinforcement theory

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Differential-association reinforcement theory was an attempt to combine the principles of differential association with those of

A) operant conditioning
B) strain theory
C) punishment theory
D) social control theory

Question 5

A major difference between developmental criminology and other approaches the use of

A) a static approach to understanding the causes of crime
B) a psychological approach to understanding the causes of crime
C) an individual approach to understanding the causes of crime
D) a dynamic approach to understanding the causes of crime

Question 6

According to the Integrated Cognitive Antisocial Potential (ICAP) theory, the distribution of chronic offenders in the population at any age both is

A) limited and highly skewed
B) skewed towards long-term AP
C) shows a normal distribution for age groups
D) is short-term and adolescent limited

Question 7

Routine activities theory posits that WHAT facilitate the convergence between the potential offender and victim

A) day-to-day activities
B) environmental factors
C) social structure
D) socio-economic structures

Question 8

A conception of offender as instrumental in the commission of a crime is a central element of

A) Integrated Cognitive Antisocial Potential (ICAP) theory
B) rational choice theory
C) differential reinforcement theory
D) social cognitive learning theory

Question 9

Adherence to an oppositional sub-cultural rule set that values law breaking, violence and rebelliousness is a basic element in

A) differential association theory
B) routine activity theory
C) neutralization theory
D) Integrated Cognitive Antisocial Potential (ICAP) theory

Question 10

The assumption that people act in ways that will bring them pleasure and avoid actions they believe will cause pain and suffering is key to

A) social learning theory
B) attachment theory
C) general theory of crime
D) neutralization theory

Question 11

The two important factors mediating the extent to which early disruption of the caregiver-child relationship influences subsequent delinquent and/or criminal behaviour are

A) when the disruption occurs and the length of disruption
B) when the disruption occurs and the frequency of disruption
C) the frequency of the disruption and its duration
D) the frequency of the disruption and how the child perceives the disruption

Question 12

Rebellon's (2002) longitudinal study noted an association between both

A) parental divorce or separation at an early age
B) poor parental attachment
C) frequent changes in caregivers
D) parental divorce or separation during adolescence

Question 13

According to Ward (2000), insecure or unstable attachment relationships

A) result in cognitive distortions about relationships
B) stop the development of implicit theories
C) interfere with theory of mind competence
D) are the foundation of theory of mind competence

Question 14

The Personal, Interpersonal and Community-Reinforcement Theory posits that

A) deviant and non-deviant behaviour are the result of environmental and social factors
B) deviant and non-deviant behaviour are under antecedent and consequent control
C) deviant and non-deviant behaviour are the product of social strain
D) deviant and non-deviant behaviour are a consequence of individual personality factors

Question 15

Bandura argues that behaviour is strongly regulated via

A) antecedent cognitive processes
B) reciprocal determinism
C) social learning
D) the way environment affects behaviour

Question 16

The term palliative comparison refers to

A) the sanitising language used to reduce personal responsibility
B) portraying harmful behaviour as having social worth or moral purpose
C) the use of more harmful extremes to make behaviour appear benign
D) minimising one's role in any harm caused

Question 17

Although research supports the efficacy of R & R programmes, the findings indicate a need to take into account an individual's _______ and _______ context.

A) human needs and primary goods
B) social and human needs
C) economic and environmental context
D) social and economic context

Question 18

According to the needs principle, targeting one of the following would prove ineffective if not been directly linked with the risk of further offending

A) antisocial beliefs
B) low self-esteem
C) substance use
D) cognitive distortions

Question 19

The responsivity principle can be regarded as

A) a program principle
B) a matching principle
C) a psychological principle
D) a treatment principle

Question 20

Risk management approaches with offenders differ significantly from therapy delivered to other client populations seeking help for psychological and behavioural problems. Differences include the nature of correctional treatment goals, the lack of attention to problems not causally related to the problem behaviour and

A) failure to clearly articulate responsivity principles
B) limited acknowledgment of mental health problems
C) failure to consider life plans
D) limited collaboration between client and therapist

Question 21

The GLM places strong emphasis on the concepts of human agency due to its grounding in the ethical concept of _________

A) moral values
B) human goods
C) moral justifications
D) human dignity

Question 22

Which of the following is not a secondary good?

A) joining an adult sports team
B) completing an apprenticeship
C) finding meaning and purpose in life
D) studying at university

Question 23

The four types of difficulties offenders typically experience in their efforts to obtain primary goods are inappropriate strategies, lack of scope, absence of internal capabilities, and

A) implicit theories
B) maladaptive coping
C) poor emotional regulation
D) conflict

Question 24

Helping a client to identify barriers to performing a particular behaviour and planning ways to overcome these is an example of

A) social cognitive theory
B) self-regulation theory
C) operant conditioning
D) self-determination theory

Question 25

Asking a client to keep a record of specified behaviours is an example of

A) cognitive evaluation theory
B) self-regulation theory
C) organismic integration theory
D) self-determination theory

Question 26

Causality Orientations Theory is an element of

A) self-determination theory
B) dialectical behaviour therapy
C) cognitive theory
D) REBT

Question 27

According to Bandura, _________ is the foundation of human motivation and action.

A) self-control
B) modelling
C) self-efficacy
D) the cognitive triad

Question 28

Modelling used by the therapist to help the individual distinguish between desired behaviours and those that are inappropriate or undesirable is

A) operant learning
B) discrimination learning
C) social learning
D) behavioural learning

Question 29

Which of the following is not an implications of social cognitive theory for offender rehabilitation?

A) It highlights the role of self-efficacy in initiating and maintaining behaviour change
B) It illustrates how the skills the individual does possess can be used as the basis for developing new skills
C) It identifies the role of cognition in the acquisition of learned behaviours
D) It describes the relationship between autonomy, competence, and relatedness and psychological health and well-being

Question 30

The test-operate-test-exit (TOTE) model conceives self-regulation as a

A) comparator process
B) a feedback loop disturbance process
C) cybernetic control process
D) a self-control process

Question 31

Which of the following is not emphasised in the strength-based model of self-regulation proposed by Baumeister and his colleagues

A) self-monitoring
B) self-regulatory strength
C) motivation
D) self-efficacy

Question 32

In addition to the stages of change, three key variables in the transtheoretical model of are

A) processes of change, decisional balance, and self-efficacy
B) processes of change, decisional balance and self-regulatory strength
C) processes of change, self-efficacy and self-regulatory strength
D) processes of change, self-efficacy and self-monitoring

Question 33

Which of the following is not an implications of behaviour enaction models for offender rehabilitation

A) Change cycles can be used to understanding addictive behaviours
B) Specific methods to increase motivation can be aligned to specific stages of change
C) Processes of goal setting, self-monitoring, and self-evaluation provide a framework for behaviour change
D) Integration of stages and processes of change provide treatment methods for addressing maladaptive cognitions, interpersonal conflicts, family system conflicts, and intra-personal conflicts

Question 34

According to Beck's continuity hypothesis, clinically significant difficulties are an extreme form of

A) negativistic thoughts
B) normal emotional and behavioural functioning
C) cognitive activity that has not been monitored
D) dysfunctional schemas

Question 35

_________ provides a means to distance cognitions from behavioural responses

A) Cognitive therapy
B) Schema therapy
C) Acceptance commitment therapy
D) Dialetical behaviour therapy

Question 36

Which model of therapy facilitates the confronting of basic, unconscious belief structures that influence conscious thoughts, feelings and actions?

A) Stress inoculation therapy
B) Cognitive therapy
C) Acceptance commitment therapy
D) Schema therapy

Question 37

Case-specific information can help to identify ________ which may not be included in standardised static or dynamic risk instruments

A) primary risk factors
B) unique risk factors
C) criminogenic risk factors
D) non-criminogenic risk factors

Question 38

A specific type of clinical assessment whereby the examiner attempts to identify violence risk factors through a detailed examination of the individual's history of violent and threatening behaviour is called

A) an anamnestic approach
B) a Good Lives approach
C) a case formulation approach
D) an RNR approach

Question 39

The criteria for selecting a risk assessment tool should be based on the predictive accuracy of the instrument, its utility or capacity to provide additional information that might be beneficial in the assessment question, the extent to which it has been validated for use with the population under consideration and

A) whether it takes a holistic approach of the individual
B) the cost and ease of completing the instrument
C) whether it addresses responsivity issues
D) its cultural sensitivity

Question 40

A comprehensive risk assessment should include an examination of factors that range from _________ to ____________

A) distal factors to proximal factors
B) theoretical factors to applied factors
C) personal factors to environmental factors
D) assessment to case formulation

Question 41

Which of the following is considered a contextual antecedent in assessing risk?

A) low level of social functioning
B) substance abuse
C) poor treatment compliance
D) lack of positive social supports

Question 42

Which of the following is an acute dynamic risk factors?

A) pro-offending attitudes
B) substance abuse
C) socio-affective functioning
D) antisocial peers

Question 43

The difficulty of predicting events increases in proportion to the degree to which the base rate differs from

A) 0
B) 0.25
C) 100
D) 0.5

Question 44

If the observed rate of sexual recidivism among females sexual offenders is between 1% and 3%, the prediction is that no female offender will sexually reoffend will be accurate

A) 97% to 99% of the time
B) 1 to 3% of the time
C) the base rate is too low to make a prediction
D) there is insufficient data on female sex offenders to make prediction

Question 45

Which of the following is not a causal mechanism implicated in sexual abuse?

A) developmental adversity
B) family context
C) biological variables
D) all of the above

Question 46

Static measures like the STATIC 99 provide little information about the ________ of the risk for reoffending

A) long-term likelihood
B) immediacy
C) validity
D) reliability

Question 47

Acute dynamic risk factors can be defined as highly _______ conditions that last _______

A) malleable, hours or days
B) stable, weeks or months
C) transient, hours or days
D) enduring, weeks or months

Question 48

Crick and Dodge's (1996) model of the development of aggressive and antisocial behaviour in young people draws particular attention to

A) the social information processing
B) specific triggering events
C) the role of anger
D) the role of imitation in learning aggressive responses

Question 49

According to Howells, Daffern, and Day (2008), some of the differences between aggressive and non-aggressive individuals may be related to

A) information processing
B) event perception
C) self-regulation
D) hostile attributions

Question 50

Davey, Day, and Howells (2005) distinguished between two types of overcontrolled aggressive offender

A) phenomenologically overcontrolled and behaviourally overcontrolled
B) disinhibited overcontrolled and emotionally overcontrolled
C) phenomenologically overcontrolled and emotionally overcontroled
D) disinhibited overcontrolled and behaviourally overcontrolled

Question 51

Which of the following has not been identified as a potential problem for interventions which target violent offenders

A) aggression and violence as problematic
B) lack of motivation to change
C) heterogeneity in offenders and offence types
D) biological antecedents of offending behaviour

Question 52

In addition to being conceptualised in terms of managing anger, affective dyscontrol has also describes a lack of

A) emotional dysregulation
B) affective coping skills
C) somatic dysregulation
D) somatic coping skills

Question 53

Bennett, Holloway, and Farrington (2008) found the drug-crime nexus was greatest for

A) herion use
B) poly-substance use
C) cocaine
D) crack cocaine

Question 54

The provision of drug treatment is complicated by a number of issues. Which of the following was not identified by Visher, La Vigne, & Travis (2004) as one?

A) cost
B) problem complexity
C) current policy
D) community reintegration

Question 55

Goldstein's (1985) tripartite explanation of drug use and crime includes three models: the psychopharmacological, economically compulsive, and the

A) deviant lifestyle model
B) systemic violence model
C) community disorganisation model
D) pathways model

Question 56

Using Gottfredson and Hirschi's (19990) general theory of crime, the common cause of drug use and crime is

A) environmental factors
B) self-control
C) criminal associates
D) learned behaviours

Question 57

The strongest evidence for reducing drug use and crime has been associated with

A) cognitive behavioural therapies
B) psycho-educational programmes
C) residential treatment programmes
D) abstinence-based programmes

Question 58

Which of the following is not a common characteristic of female offenders identified by Bloom, Owen and Covington (2005)

A) low education levels
B) a lack of employment skills
C) evidence of prior physical and sexual abuse
D) low soci-economic status

Question 59

Which of the following has been identified as making a unique or disproportionate contribution to female offending?

A) offending at a young age
B) a lack of employment skills
C) substance abuse as a form of self-medication
D) all of the above

Question 60

According to the childhood victimisation model of female offending,

A) dysfunctional relationships in childhood lead to low levels of self-efficacy and greater likelihood of adult victimisation
B) family relationships fail to produce human capital
C) dysfunctional relationships inhibit the development of the internal knowledge, skills, and capacities that enable women to act in new ways
D) a cycle develops whereby abuse leads to mental illness and the substance abuse

Question 61

Actuarial methods of risk assessment

A) can be used to place the female offender in a group with similar levels of known risk factors
B) can provide a specific range of observed rates of reoffending for females
C) allows a quantification of the probability of risk for female offenders
D) cannot provide the quantitative or probabilistic parameters of risk that is currently available for male offenders

Question 62

Cottle, Lee and Heilbrun (200) found the strongest predictor of juvenile recidivism was

A) dysfunctional family
B) antisocial peers
C) offence history
D) antisocial personality

Question 63

The average Area Under the Curve (AUC) for juvenile risk assessment tools is

A) 0.72
B) 0.64
C) 0.59
D) 0.81

Question 64

One of the most striking feature of Lipsey's (2010) meta-analysis of juvenile offender treatment was

A) that level of supervision offered did not influence programme effectiveness
B) that level of supervision was critical to programme effectiveness
C) that programmes with a stronger punishment focus are more effective with younger offenders
D) strategies associated with control or coercion were most effective

Question 65

Young offenders in early to middle adolescence are more likely to need interventions that address

A) vocational assistance
B) conflict resolution
C) development of independent living skills
D) substance abuse

Question 66

The weighting of the "big four" risk factors

A) is similar for adolescents and adults
B) typically varies according to age
C) is weighted towards the influence of antisocial peers
D) is weighted towards the influence of antisocial personality

Question 67

Fazel and Danesh's (2002) review found that one _____ inmates suffered from a psychotic illness or major depression.

A) 10
B) 5
C) 7
D) 20

Question 68

Which of the following has been indicated in research drawn from across different correctional settings and across different jurisdictions

A) a significant proportion of offenders have serious forms of mental illness
B) there is evidence of co-morbid substance use disorders with mental illness
C) co-morbid substance abuse and mental disorders elevate risk for a wide range of criminal offending
D) all of the above

Question 69

Control override delusions are

A) the individual believes an outside entity is trying to take control of his or her mind
B) the individual perceives a threat where none exists
C) the individual's delusions are under auditory control
D) the individual develops a capacity to override or control his or her delusions

Question 70

Nomothetic information used in formulating risk refers to

A) individual clinical assessment
B) group-based data drawn from actuarial measures
C) formulations that include an assessment of psychopathy
D) the repeat use of clinical assessments so that a baseline can be established for the individual offender

Question 71

According to the authors, mental illness should be considered

A) a responsivity issue
B) a criminogenic need
C) a treatment readiness issue
D) a non-criminogenic need

Question 72

The a high level of professional judgement used in the offender rehabilitation field is the product of

A) the individual nature of the clients
B) limited practice guidelines
C) the paucity best practice research for treatment
D) the clinical versus actuarial judgment conflict

Question 73

Being involved in treatment and also conducting psychological assessment for court is

A) a breach of confidentiality
B) acceptable as long as the client has given informed consent
C) an example of role conflict
D) a breach of client-patient privlege

Question 74

According to Greenberg and Shuman (1997), the forensic treatment provider should develop a cognitive set and attitude that is

A) supportive, accepting and empathic
B) neutral, objective, and empathic
C) neutral, accepting, and objective
D) detached, objective, and accepting

Question 75

The nature of hypotheses tested in the context of forensic evaluation are

A) diagnostic
B) psycho-legal
C) adversarial
D) risk-based

Question 76

According to Glaser (2003), sexual offender treatment is

A) effectively punishment administered by treatment providers
B) consensual between client and treatment provider
C) effective despite its coercive nature
D) an attempt by perpetrators to be seen in a more positive light

Question 77

The value of decision making models in supervision is

A) that provide a linear or cognitive way resolving ethical matters
B) that they are not intended to be mechanical or procedural
C) that they incorporate Codes of Conduct or clinical practice guidelines
D) the onus is placed on the practitioner

Question 78

According to Greenberg and Shuman (1997, the privilege governing disclosure for therapeutic relationships is

A) therapist-patient privilege
B) therapist-patient confidentiality
C) informed consent privilege
D) informed consent confidentiality